|
« I want to hire a NEW ATTORNEY with money my husband was ordered to pay my last lawyer. |
Main
| Is OVERTIME considered in fixing CHILD SUPPORT? »
|
 |
|
Can you give me a MOORE MARSDEN Analysis on My SEPARATE PROPERTY HOME?
|
Q. Can you please help. I understand a Moore-Marsden analysis needs to be performed on my house in my pending divorce, but I don't understand what it is my attorney is telling me. These are the facts. On 1/1/02 I put my wife on the title to the property. This is what happened.
Purchase price 6/92 before marriage |
|
$164,875 |
| |
|
|
Date of Marriage 5/15/94 Market value |
$190,000 |
Market Value 1/1/2002 when Wife goes on Title |
$245,000 |
Market value 4/7/2008 |
|
$612,000 |
Initial 6/92 Down payment |
|
$54,875 |
Principal Payment from separate prop. after separation |
$6,836 |
| FMV today (decreased since DOS) |
$500,000 |
Frederic, in San Dimas
Frederic:
Here is an illustration of how the calculation works. Please see my FAQ on Moore Marsden generally. As you can see, it is complicated. You will need a forensic accountant and you may want a real estate expert because fair market values need to be fixed at various dates. Your situation is even more complicated because you placed her on title. The simplest Moore-Marsden situation deals with a property owned in the name of one spouse throughout the marriage, where marital earnings are used to pay the mortgage down - the fundamental concept is that the community should get some reimbursement for this, which comes back as a share in the appreciation and reduced principal obligation.
You will need to get:
- the mortgage payoff balances on the date of marriage;
- the mortgage payoff balance on date of the transmutation (when your wife went on title)
- the payoff balance at date of separation
- and you will need a mortgage balance near the date of your trial
I want to mention that all transmutations that favor one spouse and disadvantage the other, like putting her on the deed on 1/1/02, are subject to a claim that they should be set aside. This is because there is a presumption that your Wife exerted undue influence upon you - please research my fiduciary duty blog articles using the on-site search engine if this interests you.
Therefore, one scenario is:
Assuming $ 54,875 dowppayment
and 6,836 (paydown before M)
(you will need the mortgage statements) 25,125 appreciation before M
and (20,197) principal reduction during M
then: $54,875 [DP] PLUS $89,803
[SP Loan of $110,000 minus $20,197 CP payments]
= $144,678 DIVIDED BY $164,875 [purchase price]
= 's a 87.75 SP Interest
and
$20,197 divided by $164,875 =' a 12.25% CP interest
NEXT $ 54,875 [DP]
6,836
(plus post DOS loan payments which I don't
see broken out so assume zero here) 61,711 PLUS 25,125 (premarital appreciation) PLUS 315,900 [87.75% of post-DOM appreciation to present assuming FMV $550,000 today
equals $550,000 less $164,875 less $25,125="$360,000]" - appreciation percentage of H's SP interest ='s $402,736 (H's SP share)
COMMUNITY INTEREST IS: $20,197 plus 12.25% of 360,000=" $44,100"
plus 20,197="$64,297"
Wife' hare is this number divided by 2 ='s $32,148 equalization to W
I recognize that this may seem imcomprehensible. I will endeavor to write some simpler blogs on this topic, because this is a very common area for questions. Yikes!
Thurman W. Arnold |
 |
|
|
|
Posted By Thurman Arnold on
August 20, 2009 05:30 pm |
Permalink
|
 |