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Recent Blog Posts in March 2010 |
| March 25, 2010 |
| What is GUIDELINE SUPPORT in California? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
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Q. How is child support calculated in California? I have heard about "Guideline Support" but am wondering what this means?
A. In 1993 California adopted a Statewide Uniform Guideline to come into compliance with a federal mandate. (Family Code section 4050). This followed wide variability of orders and a prior failed attempt to ensure predictability. Its effect was to greatly increase the monies available to children and to begin to end gender bias in assessing support. Family Code section 4052 requires California court Commissioners to adhere to the uniform guidelines and to "depart from the guideline only in special circumstances...."
Family Code section 4053 lists principles to be followed by the Court in implementing the guidelines. This is a statute worth reviewing, and using to remind family court judges of what our State child support policy is. These include the directives that:
(1) A parent's first and principal obligation is to support their minor children "according ot the parent's circumstances and station in life."
(2) Both parents are mutually responsible.
(3) The guideline must take into account each parent's actual income and the level of responsibility for the children.
(4) "Each parent should pay for the support of the children or according to his or her ability."
(5) The interests of children are the State's top priority.
(6) Children should share in the standard of living of both parents. Child support may therefore be appropriately used to increase the standard of living of the custodial household to improve the lives of the children.
(7) Disparities of living standards in both homes, particularly where both parents have high levels of responsibility for raising the children, should be minimized through the use of guideline child support orders.
(8) A parent having primary physical responsibility for the children (a term that is nowhere defined in the Family Code) is presumed to be contributing a significant portion of their available financial resources to the support of these children.
(9) The guideline is intended to encourage settlement between parents by creating predictability.
(10) The guideline is presumptively correct in all cases, and ony in special circumstance should child support orders be less than guideline.
(11) Child support orders must reflect the greater standard of living and costs of living in California as opposed to other states.
California Family Code section 4055 sets forth the formula for assessing guideline support. Don't even bother to look at it, you will need to be a mathematician or logics teacher to understand or explain it. While gross income numbers (or imputed income) are used, the guideline tax effects this income so that net income is generally what is determinative - however, this complicates doing the math. The percentage of parent's income allocated to children is called the "K" factor, and this number moves depending upon how many children there are. It assumes, for instance, that 26% of the joint income of most families is spent on families with one child, and 60% where there are three children. Forturnately these calculations are done for us through computer programs. The most common are the Dissomaster and Xspouse, which I will explain further in another blog. Riverside County in Indio utilizes the Xspouse. The Xspouse is a spin off from the people who devised the Dissomaster, after they had a parting of the ways.
Child support always takes precedence over spousal support, or personal expenses. Relative timeshare between the parents is a major factor in using the formula - the higher the noncustodial parent's timeshare, the less they pay.
Unfortunately this means in practice that there is much legal wrestling between parents about timeshare that has nothing to do with the children's best interests but often everything to do with economic warfare. I write about this in separate articles detailing Collaborative Law processes where we attempt to refocus parents on best interests rather than legal rights (per the guideline formula, for instance) so that primary parent's (often mothers) will give up more custodial time and fathers will pay a little more for this time and then actually undertake using that time (as opposed to having it on paper in a court order, but generally ignoring the increased responsibilities). Please see this link to our Collaborative Divorce Team.
Importantly, even when courts order child or spousal support to women, studies have shown that most children who are entitled to child support from their fathers never receive it (Huang, Mincy, and Garfinkel, 2005). There may be a number of reasons for this. One determinant of fathers meeting these obligations is their ability to pay. Researchers have found that when child support obligations exceed 35% of a father' sincome, he is less like to comply (Meyer and Barfeld, 1996). Lower earner fathers are generally required to pay a higher proportion of their income in child support in child support than higher earners, which pressures the poorest members of our society (Huang, et al., 2005).
Women in heterosexual relationships, as single parents (or child-caretaking partners), are at greatest risk of becoming systemically impoverished (Strong, et al., 2008). Following divorce, women are principally responsible for both child-rearing and their own economic support. At a minimum a woman may suffer a significant decrease in her financial condition. Studies have shown that a single mother's income may decrease by twenty-seven percent or more. (Peterson, 1996; Smock, 1993). [Please contact me if you want the actual citations to these studies].
These realities may or may not interest you. They do affect children and parents in very deep ways, nonetheless.
In any event, now that you have the background I will provide more detailed information on how the Xspouse and Dissomaster programs work in practice very soon. Try using our search engine at the upper right corner of any page on this site and you will find those articles when they are up.
TWA
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| March 24, 2010 |
| I am remarried. How does my NEW MATE'S INCOME affect my SPOUSAL SUPPORT or CHILD SUPPORT OBLIGATION? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
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Q. I remarried in August, 2009, and my new wife is a doctor. She has one child from her prior marriage and I have two. I am still paying my former wife alimony and child support even though the kids we have together live at our home 40% of the time. I have been hit hard by the economy and we largely depend upon my wife's medical income to make ends meet. Now my ex is threatening to take me back to court to increase my support based upon my new wife's income, while my own income is down from when the court last decided it. My new wife is upset at the idea that my ex can learn anything about the medical practice or income. What should I do?
A. If there has been a material decrease in your income since the time of your last order, you may safely file a support modification motion to lower your child support and to lower or possibly terminate your spousal support. Whether that is advisable based upon your numbers has nothing to do with your new mate's income, and should not cause you to hesitate - but again, it does depend on the actual respective numbers between you and Wife 1, which you did not provide me. You also need not worry about W1 filing a motion to increase (you can't stop her, but she will not win based on W2's earnings). Maybe you should give her this link so she will think twice.
California law is quite clear that new mate income cannot generally be considered against you in ordering or modifying child or spousal support. The controlling California Family statute is section 4057.5.
In the normal situation, Family Code section 4057.5 leaves the Court no discretion to consider your new wife's earnings, period. You do not need to report those earnings on your FL-150 (Income and Expense Declaration). This is a statement of California legislative policy effective in 1993 when this section was added to the Family Code. This is true for both spousal and child support.
However, section 4057.5 does contain an exception for the "extraordinary case" which the statute makes clear is intended to address situations where "where excluding that income would lead to extreme and severe hardship to any child subject to the child support award" or where "a parent ... voluntarily or intentionally quits work or reduces income, or who intentionally remains unemployed or underemployed and relies on a subsequent spouse's income." Even if the court were to find a severe hardship on the children of marriage number one, it would be required not to impose a severe hardship on your wife's child by reallocating her income to you for purposes of supporting your two children.
In practice, so far, Courts almost never find facts sufficient overcome this clear statutory prohibition. So far there is no published California appellate decision defining these extraordinary circumstances. No doubt one day someone will so abuse this protection and hide behind it that we will get a reported decision that fleshs out how bad someone needs to behave before the protection is lost. But "extraordinary" means really extraordinary. In the average case, your new Wife has nothing to be concerned about.
With regard to attorneys fee awards, however, there is authority for an argument that new mate income may be considered in granting or denying an attorney fee request, but the odds are against a judge doing that.
Incidentally, this section also applies to income from nonmarital partners as well as new spouses. In one reported case (IRMO Loh), a trial court was reversed for inceasing dad's child support obligation after the mother produced photos of the father's "lifetyle" to show imputed nontaxable income in the form of his new girlfriend's contributions to him, since she paid for all his toys.
The new mate question is a subset of the "imputed income" situations where a father or mother may quit work or reduce hours because they are relying on their new mate to contribute the difference. That is not likely going to be an extraordinary case, but W1 can separately seek to impute income to you on the basis that you have a higher earning capacity than you are exercising. Earning capacity and imputed income is a blog for another day. Also, I will mention here that another argument exists in favor of W1 that has nothing to do with the right to obtain the records or income of W2: Equalizing the lifestyle's of the two households where yours is rich and grandiose and W1 is impoverished (an extreme example) pursuant to FC section 4057(b)(4).
The tax returns are privileged as they relate to your new wife's medical practice. For instance, if she is a medical corporation (which I recommend be set up), she will almost never be forced to divulge those records. Even as to your joint returns, you may be entitled to redact the information concerning your new spouse or have the Court review them in camera (meaning they are not turned over to the other side). Your former mate is entitled to see your side of the tax returns, however, and they are not insulated from scrutiny simply because you filed joint with the Doctor Wife. If you don't file jointly, your former wife will almost certainly never get her hands on your new wife's Married Filing Separately (MFS) returns. Structuring things this way may or may not be advisable and you should consult a tax accountant.
An interesting twist here is that because you marry a higher, wealthy earner, your taxes actually increase because under federal IRS (and the California FTB), you are responsible for one-half of your new mate's income - and this is true even if you don't file jointly. One case (County of Tulare vs. Campbell) has held that this additional tax you become liable for can form the basis for a reduction in your support because you have less net income available for support after the tax hit is deducted. Hence, based on these tax consequences you may have an additional argument for decreased support - although a Court may try to deny you some discretionary offset to even the score since this feels a bit unfair to the spouse who is primarily supporting the children and so lessen the downward modification.
The take-away: So long as you are not playing games, have not intentionally reduced your income by relying upon your new mate's income, and there is no really extraordinary difference in the two households, your new wife's income is just not relevant and so it is protected. |
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| March 06, 2010 |
| What does a VOLUNTARY DECLARATION OF PATERNITY (VDOP) do in California? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
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Q. My ex girlfriend gave birth to our son three years ago. I was at the hospital with her, and signed a document they handed me that said I was the father. She and I were never married. We lived together for another year, but then split up. For six months, since I got a new girlfriend, the ex has refused to let me see our son. What can I do?
A. This is a common situation. We always know who the mother of a child is, but it isn't always certain who the father is. The law has developed ways of dealing with this, keeping in mind it is the policy of the state to try to find legal fathers for children so that they, and not the taxpayers, have the burden of supporting that child.
Under the law, when a woman gives birth to a child during a marriage there is a legal presumption that he is the biological father if certain conditions are met. There are a number of statutory ways of establishing parentage since there are a number of different situations where children are conceived and born. Here I only write about situations where there was no marriage.
Establishing you are the father is a precondition to establishing two very important things: Your right to share the custody and visitation of the child and your right to receive child support, or your obligation to pay it.
Family Code section 7611 establishes this presumption where
1) the man "and the child's natural mother are or have been married to each other and the child is born during the marriage, or within 300 days after the marriage is terminated, ... or after a judgment of [legal] separation is entered by a court"; or
2) before the birth, he and the mother attempted to marry each other but where the marriage was for some reason invalid, if the child is born during the attempted marriage or within 300 days after it termination OR if the attempted marriage is invalid without a court order, the child is born within 300 days after the ending of cohabitation; or
3) After the birth, he and the mother marry or attempt to marry each other but the marriage could be declared or is declared invalid, where (a) with the father's consent is named on the birth certificate or (b) he is obligated to support the child under a written voluntary promise or under a court order; or
4) If the man receives the child into his home and openly holds him out as his natural child.
Since you don't mention a marriage or attempted marriage, only the fourth category may apply to you.
Family Code sections 7570 to 7577 govern the establishment of paternity by voluntary declaration. This is called a VDOP. It is really for establishing paternity between a child and unmarried persons.
Since 1995, hospitals in California have been required to have on hand this declaration and informational documents about establishing paternity by this method. Hospitals are required by law to "provide [these documents] to the natural mother and [to] attempt to provide, at the place of birth, to the man identified by the natural mother as the natural father...." Family Code section 7571(a). Family Code section 7572 sets forth what the informational materials of the legal effects of signing the VDOP, including the rights that a father may be assuming and those that he is giving up (like limitations on his ability to dispute parentage later). Hospitals are then required to submit these documents to the California State Department of Child Support Services [DCSS].
Family Code section 7573 provides that, with certain qualifications, once this VDOP has been submitted to DCSS, the VDOP "shall establish paternity of the child and shall have the same force and effect as a judgment for paternity issued by a court.... The voluntary declaration of paternity shall be recognized as a basis for the establishment of an order for child custody, visitation, or child support."
Family Code section 7574 sets forth the minimum requirements of what the VDOP must say to the father.
The VDOP may only be rescinded (reversed) by either parent by filing a recission form with DCSS within 60 days of its date of execution unless a court has already entered orders for support or custody based upon it. Family Code section 7575.
Nonetheless, if a challenge is made within certain time frames to the VDOP after the recission period is passed, Family Code section 7575(b)(1) may permit the Court to set the judgment it has created aside "if the court finds that the conclusions of all the experts based upon the results of genetic tests ... are that the man ... is not the father," UNLESS the court finds that denial of an action to set aside the VDOP is not in the best interest of the child. Take a look at subsection (b)(1) to get a sense of what those considerations include.
Family Code effectively sets a 2 year statute of limitations for filing a motion with a court to set aside the VDOP; otherwise it cannot be set aside. Genetic testing must prove the supposed father is in fact not the bio dad.
In your case the VDOP cannot be set aside since it was signed more than 2 years ago. Based upon it, you are the legal father. If you need the court's assistance to enjoy visitation rights with your son, you need to file and serve a Paternity action, attach the VDOP (which you can get from DCSS), and file a separation OSC or motion to have custody and visitation rights determined. The case then becomes much like any other custody dispute.
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| March 06, 2010 |
| Is a WAIVER OF SPOUSAL SUPPORT in a PRENUP VALID? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
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Q. Before I married we signed a prenup that says I waived any right to spousal support. Is this valid?
A. Maybe yes, maybe no. Sections 1612 and 1615 of the California Family Code impose important limitations on spousal support waivers effective 1/1/02.
Spousal support waivers absolutely require that the party waiving the right was represented by independent legal counsel at the time the agreement was entered into. Family Code section 1612(c). If a lawyer has not advised the party and signed off on the agreement, the waiver is unenforceable.
Even if a party was in indeed represented by independent counsel who advised the client and approved the prenup, the spousal support waiver will not operate "if the provision regarding spousal support is unconscionable at the time of enforcement." Family Code section 1612(c). Time of enforcement means when a party attempts to force the other party to adhere to the terms of the agreement, or is resisting a support request in divorce court.
Creative attorneys anticipate these potential bars to enforcement by carefully drafting the language of the prenuptial agreement, and by creating various scenarios within the support waiver. For instance, a straight waiver of spousal support is much less likely to be enforced than a conditional waiver of support. A conditional waiver might contain language that precludes the waiver if the party seeking support is gravely ill, unable to work, or receiving welfare benefits.
Lawyers drafting premarital agreements tend to charge moderate minimum fees because of the potential attorney malpractice exposure years down the road. Many attorneys won't handle them at all, or refuse to recommend that a party ever waive support and so they will not execute the agreement.
There are a number of other restrictions which must be overcome before a premarital agreement can be enforced. One is that at least seven calendar days must have passed between the date that a party was first presented with the agreement and then later signed it.
While you may be able to accomplish what both parties say they want are are willing to do before marriage in a prenup, you must retain legal counsel who is experienced in this area of the law or things may turn out differently than you expect down the road.
Once a wedding date is set, the earlier you get the agreement negotiated and signed the greater the likelihood it will survive objection or attack later.
If you already signed one and want to know whether it will be enforced for or against you, seek a family law expert immediately.
TWA
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| March 06, 2010 |
| BIFURCATION of MARITAL STATUS |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
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Q. If I have a divorce case pending but there has been no final judgment, is it possible to terminate the marital status so that I can remarry?
A. California requries a period of at least six months elapse between the date that a Petition for Dissolution is filed and served upon the other party, and the earliest date when a marriage can be dissolved. All the remaining issues in cases involving marital breakup may not get resolved that quickly. Some divorce cases can take years to resolve. It is entirely possible to obtain a Judgment for Dissolution even though some or all other matters between the parties are still pending and have not yet been settled or decided by a court.
There are a number of reasons why people may wish to obtain an early status termination. Sometimes they wish to remarry and at other times the fact that the marital ties continue between the parties may itself be a source of friction where, for instance, one party is resisting the fact that the marriage is ending. Terminating status might help the parties to move and so come to agreement on other issues.
However, terminating marital status has some important legal consequences and should be considered carefully. Once the marriage itself is dissolved, the time for eligibililty for social security benefits ceases to run. In order to obtain Social Security benefits based upon a spouse's employment, federal law requires the marriage be of at least ten years duration - counted from the date of marriage to the actual termination date for marital status. It would be inadvisable therefor to seek or to agree to an early termination of marital status if it had the effect of terminating the marriage earlier than 10 years - if the case is otherwise unlikely to be completed within that ten years. The date of physical separation is irrelevant under federal law.
Whether this applies to you depends upon the length of marriage so far. For instance, if you are at the six year mark it is almost certain that the marriage will be dissolved before you reach ten years, and so an early bifurcation may not matter. If your marriage is already nine years old, chances are the case will not be complete before ten.
Keep in mind, neither party is hurt by allowing the ten years to accumulate because Social Security benefits are not paid from the pocket of either spouse, but from the taxpayers' pocketbook. Allowing social security rights to accrue hurts neither party but may be important to the interests of each - indeed, for a spouse paying alimony the receipt of social security benefits may actually decrease that obligation in the future since the receiving spouse has income.
Another common important consequence of bifurcating marital status is the likely termination of health coverage. Almost all health insurance coverage will terminate upon divorce although federal law requires a transitioning period of between 18 to 36 months under COBRA regulations.
There are other important consequences as well.
A party seeking a bifurcation of status will required to indemnify the non-requesting or resisting spouse from some of the consequences if either party requests it of the court. Often bifurcation requests are handled between lawyers by way of Stipulations to that there is never a need to have a judge rule on the question.
These stipulations track California Family Code section 2337. If your spouse is seeking a bifurcation to terminate the marriage, be sure these provisions are agreed upon or ordered by the Court.
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