|
|
|
Recent Posts in Debts Category
| March 30, 2011 |
| TAX TIME Advice for SEPARATED COUPLES About JOINT TAX RETURNS |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. I'm separated from my ex-husband, and we are in the process of a divorce. He has asked me to file jointly on a 2010 return, and I am wondering if this is a good idea. Any suggestions?
Trudy
Trudy:
I am neither a tax specialist or a CPA. As a family law attorney who is frequently asked this question, I can answer it generally (and do answer it specifically for my clients). I would need much more information in order for you to rely upon my suggestions in answer to the question you present to me. This question is highly fact/situation specific.
You refer to your husband as your "ex" which people commonly do even when they are still married but an action is pending, and I am assuming that there was no termination of your marital status in 2010 in answering this question. If your marital status was indeed terminated on or before 12/31/10, you cannot file jointly for that year.
The chief attribute of filing a joint tax return (for couples who remain married at the end of the tax year), besides potential tax savings from better tax treatment for married couples (who must be opposite-sex gendered under federal law), is something called "joint and several" liability for any amounts due and owing either based upon the return itself, or that may arise later if there is an audit and a deficiency is assessed against either/both of you - if jointly filed, the tax assessment will be joint.
If you file jointly and taxes were underpaid or under-reported, the Internal Revenue Service holds you each equally responsible for the entire amounts that should have been paid. In my experience the risk of these sort of deficiencies exists most frequently where one or both parties is self-employed, particularly in a business. People write off all kinds of expenses, and the IRS audits very few returns compared to the number that are filed. Some statistics (Kiplingers) say this one out of 150 personal tax returns. The risk of tax reporting abuse is high where the IRS is relying upon schedule C's. Perhaps obviously, business write-offs are much more susceptible to IRS attack than payrollees - depending upon what salaried employees claim as write-offs.
If you received spousal support in 2010 and you file jointly with the payor, he/she doesn't get that deduction and you pay no taxes on what you actually received. Depending upon the numbers, this may benefit you. There is no deduction for child support for the payor. For more information about "Family Support" please use my on-site search engine at the top upper right of this page.
It is common for me to see people who separated and/or filed for a dissolution in the final quarter of the prior year to then decide to file jointly for that year even where spousal support was paid, because the payor may be better off overall by electing to not deduct the alimony payments that would otherwise be deductible (and therefore taxable to you) in light of other deductions (particularly head of household). Often it is useful to have a tax preparer run the numbers both way - married filing separately and jointly. A major reason for this is the head of household deduction, which gets shared in a joint filing but is only otherwise available to the parent who had physical custody of 50.1 percent or better for six months and a day or more during the prior year (2010). The high earner gets an advantage from this. Again, I want you to check with your accountant.
There may be other benefits that accrue to a child or spousal support recipient where parties file jointly - if parties file jointly, because the California support guidelines are supposed to be "tax-effected" in the sense that people's actual filing status should be inputted into guideline support calculations (see Family Code section 4059), the payor has more "net disposable income" available to pay child or temporary spousal support when they file MFS (married filing separately) or joint. They pay the greatest taxes as "single", and so their support is lowered. However, these advantages only last so long as the marriage has not been legally terminated, whether by
bifurcation of marital status or otherwise.
I find that parties are better off cooperating about joint tax filings, when it is safe to do so. If you can file jointly because you are still married, and IF your soon to be ex-spouse gets a benefit from that joint filing (depending upon you receive spousal support or not) that is important to him (or her), I recommend that you negotiate a deal where he/she pays you a tad more support in exchange for helping him/her out on the joint filing. You will also want to agree how to divide any refunds - some or all of this refund may be community property depending on how late in the prior year you separated (monies paid to taxing authorities from community property sources remain community property).
Remember - we want to pay Uncle Sam as little as is legal. We want to make more money available to support children. Take advantage of the bias in favor of married couples when it makes economic sense for you. Cut a deal that benefits you too! This issue may give you important leverage that will help you to support the family in terms of net dollars. Otherwise, given the risks why file jointly at all?
Thurman W. Arnold, C.F.L.S. |
 |
| Continue reading "TAX TIME Advice for SEPARATED COUPLES About JOINT TAX RETURNS" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| September 25, 2010 |
| How Do I Use a MARITAL BALANCE SHEET to Figure Out How to Best DIVIDE OUR PROPERTY? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. I am considering filing for divorce, and am beginning to pencil out what the division of our assets and debts might look like. What is a good way to go about this?
A. Prepare a Marital Balance Sheet. This will give you an idea of how your property could be divided in a dissolution or legal separation, and to allow you to try out different combinations of division.
Its usefulness will depend the accuracy of your assumptions. Often times more information or outside opinions are required to do this with any degree of correctness. Sometimes the outside opinion that is required is the judge's decision on a disputed issue. Marital balance sheets can range from being exquisitely simple to exceedingly complex. Remember that it is the duty of the Court to divide the community estate equally - this division means an equal division in dollars, not that you divide the family residence with a chain saw.
The format itself is simple. You want two columns, one for you and one for your partner or spouse. You will categorize, value, and assign the community property between each of you. Some categories might be listed on a different balance sheet, like pensions.
Here are some suggestions for drafting a Marital Balance Sheet you can work with.
- Use net value numbers, i.e., equity in homes and automobiles. Secured debt is subtracted from fair market value - it is not divided as unsecured debt would be. If you take the house, you take 100% of the mortgage.
- Be sure to use realistic fair market value numbers. Don't make your final decisions based on Zillow. If your assumptions are flawed, your balance sheet analysis will be of limited use.
- Use wholesale Kelly Blue Book values for cars or at least make sure whatever yardstick you use is consistent for both parties.
- Obtain accurate and current pay-off information as to debts. Typically that will be the value of the debts on the date they are assigned, as adjusted for Epstein Credits.
- Don't treat apples and oranges as apples. For instance, list pension assets as a class separate from other assets - the present value of IRA's, 401k's, and other defined contribution plans is always different than the present value of a bank account. These pension accounts are not valued in real dollars but must be discounted, and that may require a pension forensic or CPA.
- Don't include separate property (the other spouse may dispute that characterization). Pure SP doesn't go on the marital balance sheet.
- Assign the debts, placing those numbers in parentheses to ensure they are subtracted and not added in your running total. Remember that it doesn't matter in whose name a credit card is parked. If a debt was incurred during marriage the general rule as between spouses is that each owes 50-50.
- Separate property debts don't go onto the balance sheet because they don't get evenly divided and if they were listed you may inadvertently charge yourself for half.
- Use total values rather than 1/2 community values. These numbers get divided as one of the last steps.
- Don't include support or support arrears.
- Calculate and note Watts' and Jeffries' claims
- List professional practices and businesses but realize you probably have no practical way to put a number on them, would be entirely guessing as to their value, and would probably be wrong anyway. Understand that business are worth more than the sum of their balance sheets or book values.
- If you share this document with your spouse, be sure to write "Confidential Evidence Code section 1152 Materials" on it, which makes them inadmissible as evidence against you. Otherwise you may find yourself stuck with your preliminary numbers when that is not what you intended.
- Realize that if you share this document, no matter how preliminary it is, with your spouse you will be creating in them expectations concerning value or division that they may become stuck on.
- Be careful how you treat negative equity on property. For instance, if you own a car that is worth $15,000 but you owe $25,000 and want that vehicle awarded to you, the other party will not be charged for one-half of the $10,000 in negative equity.
- Leased vehicles should be identified but have no value. I believe it is a good idea to list everything that you own or owe whether or not it has a value or can be valued at that time, since this list becomes an important road map for you and your lawyer.
- Make a note of alleged breach of fiduciary duty claims, but don't value them.
- Don't include your separate property. Include their separate property if you claim it to be all or partly community, but understand those aren't real numbers until a judge rules.
- Don't leave the document lying around where someone else might find it.
- If property is held in one spouse's name alone but a mortgage or taxes were paid during marriage, or if it was improved or refinanced during marriage, understand that the community probably has some Moore-Marsden interest in that property but that you will have great difficulty figuring out what that is without expert assistance.
- Similarly, if one spouse owned property (i.e, real estate) prior to marriage and the other was placed on title during the marriage, note to yourself that the property has community and separate property attributes and understand you will need more information or help to value those competing interests.
- Make a note of all separate property contributions you made for the acquisition or improvement of any property. These are called Family Code section 2640 credits.
- List all other reimbursements due to the community. For instance, there are many situations where the community property is used to pay one party's separate obligations (i.e., child support from a previous marriage) and if you know to assert the claim the community may be entitled to a reimbursement.
- List consumer goods like furniture at garage sale prices unless there is something truly special about the items. Nothing is valued at its purchase price or even its replacement cost new.
- Be sure to include loans from parents, work, or family members that were made during the marriage and assign those that relate to your family or work to you.
- Make a note of any gifts to one or the other of you alone that were used to purchase or improve community property, whether they were received before or during the marriage.
- Look at your bank balances at the date of separation and assign those balances appropriately. If your husband emptied the savings account the day before he walked out, list the amount he took under his column.
This is just a starting point and is valuable as a roadmap to get you thinking about what needs to be done to conclude the divorce. Once you discipline yourself to begin to overcome any paralysis you might feel, the marital balance sheet will speak to you about what is important for you, what the issues are, and will give you some idea of what important paperwork you need to obtain to evaluate your interests now or in the future. Get that paperwork at once. You are going to have to do this exercise anyway once a legal actin is filed.
This the some of the information that you must provide in your Declarations of Disclosure. It is an efficient idea to use those forms from the beginning. These California Judicial Council Forms include:
Getting started on this early will make any meeting with a family attorney cheaper and far more useful then if you've not even thought about these things.
To the extent you can determine values or ranges of values, add up the net equity in your column for the community property you want or get, and subtract 100% of the debts that are to be assigned to you. Again, chances are there will be categories where you can't put a number on the items. But if you had the numbers, then after totalling the total net to the other party, subtract the two net numbers. One of you will show a higher number. This number will reflect the over-credit amount to that person which needs to be equalized between you. Divide this number by 2, and the person who netted more owes that resulting number to the one who received less. This amount is called an "equalization payment."
This is just one way to do a marital balance sheet. Often times there is no money to pay the equalization payment because all or most of the community is held in the form of personal and real property. An equalization payment is no good to you unless you can collect it. Perhaps you can get a promissory note secured by a deed of trust on the family residence that is awarded to the wife. That is usually a bad idea - you don't want to become a bank, with all the attendant risks of default and depreciation.
Another option once you have these numbers are pencilled out is to go back and rethink how the property was divided. Maybe you should take those Peter Max lithographs after all. Maybe the residence or that vacant lot must be sold to raise money for the equalization payment. It is frequently seen in Stipulated Judgments or Marital Termination Agreements. It is not common in litigated judgments because courts generally must equalize the division at the time of trial, not in the future. This is why property may be ordered sold to ensure an equal, current division of the estate.
If defined contribution pension plans exist these are a good place to find the money to assure the equalization payment is actually honored. But a 401k with a net asset value of $100,000 might only be worth $80,000 after penalties and ordinary income taxes are charged on it. Pensions can be divided without tax consequences (QDRO's) but if you are owed a $100,000 equalization, creating a new pension in your name and transferring $100,000 from the other party's interest in it is like being handed a check for $80,000.
Thurman W. Arnold III
September 25, 2010
All Rights Reserved |
 |
| Continue reading "How Do I Use a MARITAL BALANCE SHEET to Figure Out How to Best DIVIDE OUR PROPERTY?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| September 24, 2010 |
| I Have Been Paying the MORTGAGE Since SEPARATION - Am I Entitled to WATTS CREDITS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. I have been occupying our family home alone since my wife left over a year ago. I pay all the interest only mortgage, property taxes, and insurance with no help from her. Does she owe me half of any of this?
A. You may be owed you something, but not necessarily one-half of what you have paid out, and different categories of expenses may be treated differently.
This situation involves at least three potential legal concepts:
* Epstein Credits (Payment of CP Debts Reimbursed)
* Watts Credits (Reimbursement for Exclusive Use of CP)
* Jeffries Credits (Combination of Epstein and Watts Reimbursements)
Epstein Credits
"Epstein credits" is a doctrine that holds that as a general rule courts must reimburse one spouse who uses earnings or other separate funds after separation to pay pre-existing community estate obligations. Courts may not order this reimbursement if under the circumstances it would be unreasonable for the paying spouse to have expected reimbursement. Where payments are made on account of a debt for an asset that the paying spouse was or is using and the amount was not substantially in excess of the value of the use, the Court may decline to order reimbursement. This Blog addresses your question in terms of Watts and Jeffries credits that may be owing you upon divorce or legal separation - the prior blog details Epstein credits.
Watts and Jeffries Credits
We speak in terms of "Watts credits" when one party has the exclusive beneficial use of community property. When money is owed on that asset, "Jeffries" reimbursements or set-offs for the payment of that debt also come into play. On the one hand you are enjoying the use of a valuable jointly owned asset and should reimburse the community for that use; on the other you are paying something to a creditor for that use, and that amount should be deducted from what you owe the community. Watts is a calculation for the value of what should be charged for an exclusive enjoyment of community property by one spouse; Jeffries combines the value of that use with reimbursements under an Epstein analysis. Marriage of Watts (1985) 171 Cal.App.3d 366, 373-374; Marriage of Jeffries (1991) 228 Cal.App. 3d 548, 552-553.
Family lawyers most often see Watts and Jeffries issues arise in disputes over residences occupied by one spouse alone. In practice none of these concepts are typically applied to automobiles, although in theory they should be, or other consumer goods.
While Epstein credits are generally viewed by trial judges to be mandatory reimbursements, allowing Watts and Jeffries credits is discretionary. Having a working knowledge of your local judicial bench officer's attitude on these subjects is an important bit of information for you to obtain.
Watts credits and Jeffries credits are obviously implicated in your question since you occupy the house for which you seek mortgate and other payment credits and reimbursements.
This is how Watts Credit issues typically arise - you and your wife jointly own a home, and both of you are obligated on the mortgage. Assume the monthly mortgage payment is $3,200 (interest only in your case), the taxes average $400/month, and insurance costs $1,200/year. Mortgage payments are made on the 15th of the month, and she moves out on January 14, 2009. You were unable to make the payment on December 15, 2008, so there are two payments due on January 15. On January 15 you make these two payments, and then continue to make all these payments until the present time or the date of settlement or trial. You occupy the residence the entire time. You also incur charges for water for the landscaping, etc., along with the cable bill, electricity, phone and trash. You have a gardner and a poolman that together amount to $250/month.
Hence, you are spending $3,700 on the mortgage, taxes, and insurance plus the $250 for upkeep, along with whatever you pay for utilities each month. Over time this amount can grow to a considerable number.
Assume you had to borrow the money to pay December late from your mother. This is your separate property debt to Mom if borrowed after separation. But because your wife lived at the house up until the day she moved which include all of January, you are entitled to the equivalent of an Epstein reimbursement. Watts and Jeffries don't yet apply. The obligation existed before separation, was paid after separation, and the source of payment was your separate property. The community estate owed the payment, which means you owed one-half too (she also owes one-half the utilities charged during the same period as well that were paid with your separate property).
Watts and Jeffries credits answer questions how to deal with expenses you paid after she left where you had use of the home during some some of or the entire period. Watts credits deal with the value of that use, and Jeffries deal with the value of the use less a reimbursement claim for the cost to you of that use. Both parties can have these claims for the same property at different times, or one party may assert these reimbursements as against one property while the other may assert them as to another.
What if instead of you living in the home after separation, it was rented to others but the rent didn't cover all the house related debt service? The rents are deducted from the total and you each owe one-half of the shortfall. If you advanced the difference, you are entitled to one-half back from your wife.
Watts' Analysis
So, where one party enjoys exclusive use of a CP asset how is the reimbursement calculated?
As a pure Watts credit analysis, assume a community property house is free and clear other than upkeep and utilities and that you lived there for a time - effectively rent free since there is no mortgage. You can imagine how it might be unfair for you to receive this benefit without paying for it. The amount of reimbursement you owe the community depends upon the property's fair rental value. Fair rental value (FRV) is what you would expect to pay monthly to rent the same or a similar property on the open market in an arm's length tranactions. It is usually proven by expert broker or appraiser testimony, but as an owner of property you are free to testify to what you think its fair rental value is (as is the other spouse). Whether your opinion is believed or given weight by the court depends upon the assumptions you make in arriving at your opinion of FRV (as well as perceived credibility).
If the FRV is $3,000/month, and you reside in the house for 15 months from date of separation to time of trial, the total value of your use is $45,000. From this you would deduct fixed expenses like taxes ($400/month) and insurance ($100/month). You would therefore owe the community $2,500 x 15 = $37,500, but since you own half the community the net reimbursement to the other party is one-half that amount. You may also be able to deduct the gardner and poolman particularly where those payments help to maintain the asset itself. You might even deduct repairs depending upon the circumstances (installing a solid gold toilet wouldn't qualify).
All of these reimbursements are "Watts charges" to you. They are "Watts credits" to the party to be reimbursed.
Jeffries' Analysis
The more commmon situation is that some mortgage debt for the house you occupy is being paid monthly. Assume it to be $2,000 combined (including mortgage, taxes, and insurance). If the FRV is $3,000/month but you pay $2,000 monthly then the net benefit to you is $1,000 each month or $15,000 total. You would owe a Watts reimbursement of one-half that sum, or $7,500, on the marital balance sheet or as a direct payment to your spouse.
This is a Jeffries situation. Note that it assumes that these costs to you were paid by your separate property. If instead you used community monies remaining in a bank account after the DOS to pay this debt (or CP funds from some other source) then you do not subtract that from the fair rental value because the community estate has already been charged.
BTW, an interesting twist on this question these days involves what happens when there is a mortgage but the party in possession fails or refuses to pay it. They are living there at no effective charge while the other spouse may be actually paying rent elsewhere. In that case you should not receive a credit for one-half the debt you did not actually pay, but it is difficult to predict how a judge will handle this. After all, you may continue to owe the money and have to repay it later. Now what happens if you then decide to file a bankruptcy, so then never have to pay it because the debt is discharged? That bankruptcy if properly drafted should also destroy any reimbursement claims of your spouse altogether. Great unfairness can occur in these situations. In my experience many of the legal rules for these reimbursement claims developed in a completely different economy and fairness and common sense is struggling to keep up with the new world order.
These days with the mortgage and real estate bust another situation frequently arises: The amount a spouse pays to maintain the mortgage and related asset expenses may exceed the FRV of the property. Should the other spouse be charged with half of this net loss, and so forced to underwrite some of it?
Assume in the illustration above that the costs remain the same, but the mortgage is $4,000/month. Since FRV is $3,000, you are overpaying by $1,000. Are you entitled to a credit back for one-half of the net loss? In my experience most courts won't give it to you but make the argument anyway. Courts seem to feel that if you choose to live in a place that you want the other side to help underwrite, when cheaper alternate arrangements are available, then your choice to stay there should not bind the other person. The court cannot tell you what choices to make, but it can refuse to let you benefit unfairly by them.
This makes sense on at least one level - imagine that you have a large, beautiful, expensive home that is way under water, and that your estranged wife insists on continuing to live in it despite the fact that the costs to keep it are far in excess of what comparable lodgings would cost. Naturally she wants you to absorb as much of this to whatever extent possible which lowers her incentive to move. If she was allowed to stay and charge you for one-half the difference between a $10,000 mortgage and its $5,000 rental value, she might continue to reside in this losing, nonproductive asset if she effectively only paid $7,500/month after credit for your $2,500.
Conclusion
While Epstein reimbursements appear to be mandatory in dividing the community assets and liabilities, Watts and Jeffries credits are viewed as discretionary reimbursements. Many judges don't favor these reimbursements and so exercise their disrection to deny them. I tell my clients not to count on them in negotiating settlements, and many lawyers refuse to take the argument seriously when negotiating settlement. Another reason why lawyers tend to treat them as inconsequential, besides bluffiing, is that they can be expensive to prove and so you are being tested as to whether you have the stamina or the money to assert these claims at trial. After all, it is best to have forensic experts testify to them, and these individuals may include an accountant and a broker/appraiser.
One solution is to request the family court to bifurcate the issue so that a short, separate trial occurs on the Watts/Jeffries issues alone. Once the amount of Watts or Jeffries credits is fixed by judicial decision you can now place it on the marital balance sheet in your settlement discussions on the remaining issues.
The success of a Watts or Jeffries claim are fact specific. In doing justice and equally dividing the community estate, there is broad spectrum of fairness running from "its not big deal" to being "really unfair." You will not get much traction where the consequence of not reimbursing Watts credits or imposing Watts charges is a small number. But where one party enjoys the asset alone without paying creditors, a very strong argument exists in favor of finding reimbursements.
Finally, be sure to include reference to Esptein reimbursements and Watts and Jeffries in your Declarations of Disclosure to make it clear that you are asserting such a claim. If you are the spouse in possession omit any reference to it. It is not your job to assert that argument against yourself.
Thurman W. Arnold III
September 25, 2010
All Rights Reserved.
|
 |
| Continue reading "I Have Been Paying the MORTGAGE Since SEPARATION - Am I Entitled to WATTS CREDITS?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| September 24, 2010 |
| My Ex Has Been EXCLUSIVELY USING Our RESIDENCE - Is There an EPSTEIN CREDIT For This? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. I have been occupying the home after my wife left over a year ago. I pay all the interest only mortgage, property taxes, and insurance with no help from her. Does she owe me half of any of this?
A. You may be owed you something, but not necessarily one-half of what you have paid out.
This situation involves at least three potential legal issues:
- Epstein Credits
- Watts Credits
- Jeffries Credits
This particular Blog addresses your question in terms of Epsteins - the next blog deals specificially with Watts and Jeffries credits.
Epstein Credits
I have described Epstein Reimbursements in another Blog. "Epstein credits" is a doctrine derived from the case of Marriage of Epstein (1979) 24 Cal.3d 76, 84-85. It holds that as a general rule, courts must reimburse one spouse out of the community property who uses earnings or other separate funds after separation to pay pre-existing community obligations. This commonly occurs with credit cards where there was a balance remaining when the parties separated that one or the other pays after that date. Epsteins only apply to payments on the portion of a debt that existed at date of separation, and not new debt on an old card that was incurred afterwards. The rule is not limited to credit cards but can apply to almost any class of debts.
Courts are required not to order this reimbursement if under the circumstances it would be unreasonable for the paying spouse to have expected reimbursement. If there was an agreement that a party would not be reimbursed, if the paying spouse intended the payment as a gift, or when the payment is made on account of a debt for an asset that the paying spouse was or is using and the amount was not substantially in excess of the value of the use, the Court may decline to order reimbursement. This idea of the value of use of some property acquired through debt that continues to exist after separation underlies the concepts of Watts credits and Jeffries credits, and is obviously implicated in your question since you occupy the house for which you seek credits and reimbursements.
So, Epsteins are almost always granted as to post-separation payments for expenses, or goods and services, that didn't leave a tangible asset behind that is now being exclusively enjoyed by only one of the two spouses.
As an example of how this works if there is $15,000 owing Visa for that trip to Hawaii, some groceries, and a child's school tuition at the time of separation and one party pays it off or makes monthly installments on the debt with their earnings or other separate property after that date, a benefit has been conferred upon the community because a joint obligation has been extinguished or reduced. That benefit must be equalized by a payment to the payor of one-half the amount paid or a credit or set-off against other property that gets divided. One-half is paid because the paying spouse owed their half anyway. Any portion paid before the DOS (date of separation) ordinarily will not be reimbursed.
This is generally true even if only one of the parties actually took the trip to Hawaii, unless that trip was in breach of a marital or fiduciary duty (if the husband snuck off with his paramour to Hawaii, an argument exists that he should not be reimbursed for paying that portion of the debt over the wife's objection). Family Code section 2625 directs courts to award a debt incurred by one spouse to them alone if debt was not "incurred for the benefit of the community." Family Code section 2602 empowers courts to "award ... the amount the court determines to have been deliberately misappropriated by the party to the exclusion of the interest to any other party in the community estate." FC section 2625 is a powerful and much underused statute (many attorneys seem to be unaware of it or try to bluff as though it didn't exist).
Compare this with a situation where a credit card was used to buy a dishwasher that the paying spouse possesses or receives in the divorce - since they are retaining a tangible asset it may not be fair to allow them to both keep the asset and get reimbursed for one-half its costs. Applying Epsteins can become fairly fact specific.
In situations involving use of a family residence or other tangible assets that continue to exist after separation and which are used and enjoyed by only one of the spouses, an Epstein analysis provides only a part of the answer to the reimbursement question. In effect first the amount of the Epstein reimbursements are determined, and then the question requires a Watts analysis to determine under equitable principles whether it is fair to actually order reimbursement and, if so, in what amount.
Hence, to resolve your issue you would begin by adding up the costs of everything related to the house that is spent to preserve or protect the asset. Property taxes are included, but utilities are not. The utilities you used after the physical separation are your obligation anyway, because they were not incurred during 'the marriage.' (Please see the Blog Category "Physical Separation.") Mortgage payments and insurance are considered, and probably the poolman or gardner as well.
Please continue on to the next blog for detailed infomation concerning Watts credits.
Epstein Credits and Fiduciary Duty Issues
Sometimes a spouse or domestic partner will raid the credit cards and take cash advances or buy a new wardrobe, or fix a car, during the weeks prior to separating. If it later appears that their intention was to stick the other spouse for one-half of this expense, the presumption that this is a community debt (because incurred during marriage) may be overcome and so it may be assigned to the one spouse alone. It is not fair to hold both parties responsible for debts incurred in anticipation of separation.
However, when one partner incurs a debt frivolously as opposed to recklessly before separation, in a situation not amounting to a breach of fiduciary duty - even over the prior objection of the other spouse - it is likely to be equally divided and Epstein reimbursements ordered. Both spouses have, under California law, equal rights of management and control of the community property and community credit.
Courts in my experience are reluctant to find breaches of fiduciary duty in Esptein situations unless the behavior was fairly eggregious. Charging 10 pairs of shoes at Macy's a month before separation may not be viewed as a big deal. If the debt was incurred in pursuit of an illegal activity like supporting a drug habit or sex addiction, many judges are less reluctant to declare a breach.
To illustrate another twist, if the credit card was used to pay the spouse's tuition expense instead a child's schooling as in my example above, it may also be unfair to charge the non-schooled parent with one-half the tuition portion of the credit card balance. A court is likely to look at whether this schooling benefited the community in some way before splitting that debt betwen the parties - i.e., because of the schooling did the student spouse earn more money which was then contributed to the community standard of living and so confer a benefit on both? Pure student loans are usually awarded to the party who incurred the debt as their separate property obligation.
T. W. Arnold III
http://www.DesertFamilyMediationServices.com
|
 |
| Continue reading "My Ex Has Been EXCLUSIVELY USING Our RESIDENCE - Is There an EPSTEIN CREDIT For This?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| September 20, 2010 |
| How Can I Be Sure a Court Will Enforce My AGREEMENT Reached With My Spouse OUT OF COURT? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My wife and I have reached some agreements about support and property division in our dissolution proceedings. Neither of us have attorneys. I want to write something up that is enforceable. Is there anything I should know?
A. If a case has already been filed and so is "pending", and whether you have attorneys or not, if you and your wife reach an agreement on any issue outside of court and you want to be sure that she can't back out of it before it is signed by a Judge and becomes an order, it is essential that you make reference to California Code of Civil Procedure section 664.6 in any written agreement you prepare.
The terms of all types of agreements that you reach as an incident to pending family law litigation must be independently approved by a court commissioner or judge. Usually these judicial officers just want to know that both parties are in agreement, and will not substitute their opinions for what you've decided, but not always. Particularly where children are involved, judges have an independent obligation to ensure that a child's best interests are protected. Still, judges will not usually reject your agreements - however, if one side backs out before the agreement becomes an order or a judgment, when children are involved a court may be more inclined to refuse to enter the disputed order than it would be if the issues involved property division, debts, or spousal support.
Often times people reach agreements in the hallway outside the courtroom, and then come into court and tell the judge what their agreement is - once that agreement is 'on the record', most courts are going to enforce it. Those agreements often require, however, some further writing like a stipulation and it when the stipulation is presented days or weeks later that the other party may have changed their mind. You now need to enforce that agreement, possibly by a Motion under CCP 664.6.
The problem also arises when cases get settled away from court, during the lunch break, or when the agreement doesn't get put on the record for any number of reasons. Maybe they won't sign some other document that the signed agreement contemplated or obligated them to comply with.
Any agreement you reach with anyone is a contract if certain conditions are met. Unfortunately, failure to abide by such promises may only give rise to a claim for breach of contract under civil law - which is pretty worthless in family law proceedings because you have to file an independent civil action to enforce them, which takes months or years to resolve.
You want enforceable orders. These are something more than mere verbal or written promises, or contracts that haven't ripened into Orders or Judgments.
C.C.P. section 664.6 is extremely important and useful for enforcing written agreements, because it gives the Court the power to enforce the terms of those the agreements as court orders, and to interpret them later if there is disagreement about what was in fact agreed to.
However, in order for 664.6 to work for you, you need to either reference the statute in the document that is signed or in an oral statement on the record. You don't need to mention the section specifically, but I recommend that the following language should appear in the agreement or court transcript: "The parties request the Court to retain jurisdiction to enforce the terms of the settlement agreement per CCP 664.6" is the optimal language to use.
Thurman Arnold
http://www.DesertDivorceandFamilyLawyer.com
|
 |
| Continue reading "How Can I Be Sure a Court Will Enforce My AGREEMENT Reached With My Spouse OUT OF COURT?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| September 14, 2010 |
| How do CALIFORNIA COURTS divide EDUCATION LOANS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My husband completed his training as a doctor after we married. He incurred substantial educational loans which we paid off during the marriage. What rights to I have for recovering those costs?
A. The community estate is supposed to be reimbursed for community contributions to education or training
of a spouse that substantially enhances that person's earning capacity. The amount reimbursed must include interest at the legal rate, accruing from the end of the calendar year in which the contributions were made. [FC §2641(b)(1); see FC §2627.]
Reimbursement is not appropriate in the following circumstances:
- The parties expressly agreed in writing to the contrary [FC §2641(e)]; or
- The contributions were for ordinary living expenses that would be incurred regardless of whether the spouse attended school, stayed home, or worked [Marriage of Watt (1989) 214 CA3d 340, 354].
If the loan is still outstanding at the time of dissolution, the balance is not divided but is instead assigned to the party who was educated or trained, except when the parties expressly agreed in writing to the contrary. [FC §2641(b)(2) (e).]
Nonetheless, the Court may reduce or modify the reimbursement and assignment of educational loans to the extent circumstances render such a disposition unjust, including the following [FC §2641(c)]:
- When the community substantially benefited from the education, training, or loan incurred for the education or training of the party. There is a rebuttable presumption affecting the burden of proof that the community has not substantially benefited from community contributions to the education or training made fewer than 10 years before the commencement of the proceeding. On the other hand, it is presumed that the community substantially benefited from community contributions to the education or training made more than 10 years before the commencement of the proceeding.
- The education or training received by the party is offset by the education or training received by the other party for which community contributions have been made.
- The education or training enables the party receiving the education or training to engage in gainful employment that substantially reduces the need of the party for support that would otherwise be required.
Professional licenses and education are not "property" that can be divided in divorce or legal separation in California. Reimbursement for community contributions and assignment of loans under FC §2641 is the exclusive remedy of the community or a party for education or training costs and any resulting enhancement of a person's earning capacity.
However, importantly, the Court should consider the effect of the education, training, or enhancement, or the amount reimbursed, on the circumstances of the parties in ordering permanent spousal support pursuant to Family Code section 4320(b). [FC §2641(d).]
|
 |
| Continue reading "How do CALIFORNIA COURTS divide EDUCATION LOANS?" » |
|
Permalink |
| |
| September 13, 2010 |
| My Husband and I Want to Informally DIVIDE OUR PROPERTY. What are some IDEAS for How We Go About It? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My Husband and I are separating and plan to divorce. Can you give us some ideas for informally dividing our property without court intervention between ourselves?
A. The following are alternative methods for resolving community property division and valuation disputes. [See Marriage of Cream (1993) 13 CA4th 81, 94-95.] They cannot be ordered by a Court, but are frequently suggested by family law judges and lawyers. You need first to stipulate to the method used, since absent a Stipulation your division may not be later enforceable if either of you refuse to ratify and abide by it. Oral agreements about how you will divide your property are not by themselves enforceable, even if they have been fully executed (i.e., complied with). * In-Kind Division: Each party takes one-half of assets such as bank accounts and stock in a corporation, and/or one-half of the debts.
* Trade-off Division: You may stipulate to settle your property disputes, without regard to value, by agreeing one of yoiu will take certain items of property, e.g., the furniture, and the other will take other items, e.g., the car.
* Piece-of-Cake Division: This method gets its name from the common situation where two children have a piece of cake to be cut in half. To avoid the argument over who gets the "bigger" half, it is agreed that one will cut the cake and the other gets to choose which piece he or she will receive. In the marital property context, one party makes up two lists of the property in question that he or she believes are equal, and the other party chooses which list of items she or he will take. (You may want to agree not to break up sets, e.g., a dining room set, a set of dishes, matching art works, etc.) The piece-of-cake method is particularly useful for dividing furniture and furnishing that usually have a real value to the parties far in excess of their fair market value. The method is also useful in short-term marriages for dividing wedding gifts.
* One Values, the Other Chooses: One of you places a value on each item of community property in dispute and the other party chooses those items he or she will take at the stated value up to one-half the total value. Alternatively, the party choosing may choose any, all, or none of the items, with any items not chosen going at the stated value to the one who set the value. An equalization payment can be required. In dividing furniture and furnishings, an alternative to piece-by-piece choice is to list furniture and furnishings room-by-room, and each party chooses by room.
* You Take It or I Will Take It: One party places a value on an asset at which that party is willing to let the other party be awarded the asset, or else the former will be awarded the asset at that value.
* Appraisal and Alternate Selection: An appraiser is selected by stipulation to value each of the items in question. The parties then choose items alternately until all items are taken. The one to make the first choice can be designated by the flip of a coin. Another approach is to let one party go first and the other party then gets two selections, after which choices are made alternately. It is usually preferable to agree that sets not be broken up. It might be agreed that if a party takes a set it counts as that many choices, e.g., a dining room table and four matching chairs counts as five choices, and the other party then makes the next five choices.
* Sale: The parties agree that the items in question be sold at a public sale or to a particular buyer with the proceeds divided equally, or in whatever other proportion is necessary to accomplish a satisfactory or equal division, considering the other marital assets or obligations each is receiving. For modest furniture or furnishings, the sale may be a garage sale.
* Sealed Bid: Each of the parties submits a sealed bid on each item of property in dispute, using the same list. The bids are opened simultaneously and the one bidding the highest amount for an item gets that item valued at the figure he or she bid, with an equalizing payment to be made, if necessary. This method can also be used for disposition of the family home, other real property, or a family business that both parties have operated, where each seeks to have it awarded to him or her.
* Interspousal Auction: This is a straight auction between the parties, usually with an agreed minimum incremental increase over the last bid being required. The high bidder gets the asset at the amount of his or her bid with an equalizing payment being made, if necessary. To the extent a major asset is involved such as a family business or real estate, the stipulation might provide that each of the parties have an advisor present during the bidding.
* Arbitration: The valuation and division of the community property in question is determined by an arbitrator selected by the parties. The parties should understand that the arbitrator is not required to follow the law, and his or her decision, for all practical purposes, is final and not subject to appeal. Because arbitration usually takes much less time than a court trial, the parties might consider stipulating with your consent that you hear the case as an arbitrator.
* Mediation: Mediation is greatly underutilized in family law cases. It can be a very effective and satisfying way for the parties to reach agreement on the value and division of their marital property.
* Real Property: If both parties want community real property, one of the foregoing methods of resolution can be used. If neither wants it, it can be listed for sale with a broker stipulated to by the parties, at a listing price recommended by the broker. If one wants the property but the other feels that he or she is offering too little, the latter can list it for sale with a broker of his or her choosing. If the property does not sell within a specified period of time, the listing price will be periodically reduced until it reaches the figure where the net proceeds would be equal to what the other party offered. The property then goes to the offering party for the amount of the offer.
* Combination: When more than one marital asset is in dispute, one of the foregoing methods might be used for one asset, while one or more other methods might be used for other assets.
|
 |
| Continue reading "My Husband and I Want to Informally DIVIDE OUR PROPERTY. What are some IDEAS for How We Go About It?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| May 21, 2010 |
| Must I file a JOINT TAX RETURN if we are not yet divorced? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My husband and I separated in 2009 but we are not divorced yet. We are currently on extension because he wanted me to sign a joint tax return with him, but I am nervous about doing it and keep stalling. He says if I don't sign he will ask the judge to make me. He has his own business and I suspect he is not reporting all his income. Am I required to file jointly and what happens if I do?
A. If you remain married as of December 31 of any year, you may - but you not required to - file jointly with your husband. It does not matter that you were separated during the tax year as long as your marital status has not been terminated, for instance by a Bifurcation application. You cannot be forced to file jointly, and no judge would order that you do so. Married people who are considering not filing jointly, however, should avoid signing the joint Form 4868 for the automatic extensions; depending upon other circumstances, the IRS might deem this is a consent to a joint return.
The chief problem with filing joint tax returns is that each spouse is "jointly and severally" liable for one hundred percent of any taxes due on either and both parties' income, and interest and penalties as well. If you suspect your husband is defrauding the IRS you are ill advised to file with him. Another problem is that absent an agreement otherwise, tax liabilities incurred between the date of marriage and the date of separation are community property debts, regardless which of you generated the income upon which the taxes are based. If it is not clear that you do not intend to take on any share of the liability, particularly the portion incurred after separation, by signing jointly an argument can be made you should be responsible for one-half of the full-amount. It is best to define your understanding in a writing signed and dated by both of you.
If you do file jointly anyway, at a minimum consider first getting him to sign an indemnification agreement; if there is a court proceeding pending between you, this should be in the form of a Stipulation and Order that is filed with the Court. You want a judge's signature on the agreement because agreements have to be converted into orders or judgments anyway to be later enforced if one party breaches their promises.
Indemnification agreements are only as good as the availability of a meaningful remedy, and they apply only as between the parties and do not bind the IRS or anyone else. Even if your husband promises to pay all the taxes, interest, and penalties, and even if his promise becomes a court order, as a practical matter if he later lacks the ability to meet his obligation (or refuses to do so) you may wind up with a money judgment against him that you cannot collect.
But there can be good reasons to file jointly, and it is much less a problem where your spouse is trustworthy. Taxes are usually but not always lower, and to the extent he paid you spousal support in 2009 if you file jointly you will not be charged with that as taxable income.
The issue of joint returns is something divorcing couples often barter over. You ought to have clear ideas of the pros and cons for you in your particular situation. If you are reluctant to sign, consider what you might trade for. It may be helpful to know how much money your spouse stands to save if you agree to file jointly, so you can evaluate the value to him of your cooperation.
I urge you to speak to a competent accountant or other tax specialist early on, and before signing an extension request. Most attorneys have a limited understanding of tax rules, and they will usually urge you to consult an expert. You should follow that advice. Unless a lawyer is herself a tax specialist, avoid relying just on an attorney's opinion. Besides, an accountant can examine how you might end up under your other options.
Thurman W. Arnold III
http://www.ThurmanArnold.com
|
 |
| Continue reading "Must I file a JOINT TAX RETURN if we are not yet divorced?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| May 19, 2010 |
| When are ASSETS VALUED for purposes of DIVISION in a California DISSOLUTION? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My wife and I separated two years ago and we have decided to file for divorce. We don't agree on what date we should be setting the value of some of our property, like the residence where she has been living with the kids all this time. She wants it valued today, since prices are down, but when I left we agreed that she would take it at its value then. That value was substantially higher than today, and I don't think it is fair that I have suffer the decrease in real estate prices. What might a Court do?
A. First, it is always my hope that you and your spouse can agree on as many issues as possible, without court intervention. One never knows for sure what a Court will do, and my experience is that people are far better off working through their disagreements by way of Mediation. One reason why is to ensure you are in charge of your life, not a stranger. It is possible to mediate parts of your divorce.
Still, valuing real property is not a difficult legal issue. Family Code section 2552(a) directs the court to "value assets and liabilities as near as practicable to the time of trial." Time of trial is also the equivalent of the time of settlement - in order words, if you cannot settle your divorce and you take it to a judge, that will be the time of trial so the same rule for the date of valuation should apply to your settlement negotiations.
Family Code section 2552(b), however, gives the court discretion to pick another date before trial for the valuation of property "for good cause" in order to "accomplish an equal division of the community estate ... in an equitable manner." This concept is called an "alternate valuation date." It is often applied in cases of business valuations, which is a complex topic I will separately address, but the basic reasons for the potential different treatment includes the fact that business values can be intentionally depressed by the spouse who controls the assets (and so it may not be fair to apply a lower value) or because the "in-spouse" has contributed substantial value to the company since separation and it is not necessarily fair that the other spouse share those benefits.
Here you might argue that you and your spouse reached a verbal agreement to divide all your assets two years ago if that is in fact what you did, in order to hold to those values. But verbal agreements are difficult to prove if they are not admitted by the other party, absent witnesses and she will continue have various defenses where she was not independently advised before reaching agreement.
Most courts are going to value passive assets like houses or investments or pensions at the time of trial. That does not mean that post-separation increases in value, like increased equity by paying down principal on a mortgage, or contributions to a pension after the date of separation, will not be reimbursed to one or the other of you to compensate the separate property (post-separation) contributions.
If you do seek an alternate valuation date, you need to file a Notice of Motion to Bifurcate the issue (FL-315), along with the accompanying declaration establishing why this is more fair and appropriate than the basic rule. These forms appear in our Family Law Form Library.
A bifurcation is essentially a request of the court to carve off one or more issues in the divorce for separate trial or adjudication. It is often used where a call needs to be made on one issue that, once decided, will assist in resolving other aspects of the case.
Thurman W. Arnold III
http://www.thurmanarnold.com |
 |
| Continue reading "When are ASSETS VALUED for purposes of DIVISION in a California DISSOLUTION?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| May 17, 2010 |
| My husband was HOSPITALIZED after we SEPARATED; am I liable for the bill? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. After my husband and I separated, he was hospitalized and incurred $28,000 in medical bills. The creditor is threatening to sue me. Am I liable? Is there anything I should do?
A. In a recent appellate decision out of San Diego County (CMRE Financial Services, Inc. v. Parton), the wife called police after an incident of domestic violence and shortly thereafter filed for DV restraining orders. A week later the parties separated, and the husband was admitted to Tri-City Medical Center for treatment for a severe emotional illness. He incurred substantial medical bills.
The wife filed a dissolution action three months after that. In her Schedule of Assets and Debts she listed the debt as owed by her husband. A judgment for dissolution came to be entered several months later, and it did not assign the hospital obligation to the wife. It appears to have been a default judgment against the husband.
CMRE, the assignee of Tri-City Hospital, sued both the husband and wife to collect the money for husband's treatment; by then husband had disappeared and was never served with the lawsuit. Wife responded by denying liability, and with a cross-complaint that alleged that by sending her collection notices CMRE had violated the provisions of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (Title 15, United States Code section 1692 et seq.), and that she should obtain damages against them.
CMRE filed a motion to toss out the cross-complaint, relying on the language of Family Code section 914(a)(2), which states that spouses are liable for debts incurred by the other when separated if these are for "necessaries of life."
The trial court agreed with CMRE, and the matter proceeded to a judgment against the wife for the full amount plus interest. Wife appealed.
The appellate court ruled in favor of wife, and reversed the trial court. Wife would have been liable for these medical costs IF a dissolution including property division had not been granted, or if the dissolution judgment had assigned the debt to her, or if she had agreed to support her estranged husband while they were separated. For instance, if the parties had reconciled and if CMRE had sued the wife and obtained a money judgment against her, she would have been on the hook. But once a dissolution judgment was entered that did not assign the debt to the wife she was protected. Family Code section 916.
The appellate court also noted that an independent basis for holding wife free of the debt included Family Code section 4302 which states that a person is not liable for the support of their spouse when the person is living separate from the spouse by agreement, unless the agreement calls for support. The court reasoned that while the starting point is that spouses are liable for the other's necessaries while living separately that rule will not apply where they are separated by agreement (apparently the agreement can be verbal or implied from conduct), unless the agreement includes a promise to support the other.
This appellate decision seems confusing because the language of the statutes themselves conflict. The court continued by noting that the legislature has declared that one spouse's liability for the other spouse's post-separation necessaries is entirely derivative of the fact of marriage and not the same as a debt personally incurred by the supporting spouse. This means that "the liability imposed by section 914 can be avoided by the simple expedient of entering into a separation agreement which does not provide for support."
The only exception might be where a creditor alleges a marital settlement agreement violates the Uniform Fraudulent Transfer Act. CMRE did not allege any fraud between these spouses.
This is landmark case because up to this point most lawyers and judges believed that spouses were liable for the necessaries of life of the other, even after separating, and that this was a special exception to the general rule that once spouses separate liability for debt ends.
Now we know that you have at least two ways to avoid this debt: (1) Obtain a Judgment for Dissolution before the creditor obtains a civil judgment against you, but be sure that the debt is assigned to the other spouse; and (2) be sure that you don't have an agreement to support the other spouse in place, at least at the time the debt is incurred. The judgment can be based upon a marital termination agreement.
If you pretend to separate, or separate just to avoid the debt, and if the creditor claims you did this fraudulently to avoid liability, the outcome might be different.
One additional point of information: Under the circumstances of this case, CMRE was found to have in fact violated the federal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act just by sending threatening letters, and of course by filing suit. Knowledge of this case can be used to back off creditors who are harassing you.
Thurman W. Arnold III
http://www.thurmanarnold.com
|
 |
| Continue reading "My husband was HOSPITALIZED after we SEPARATED; am I liable for the bill?" » |
|
Permalink |
| |
| May 11, 2010 |
| What are EPSTEIN REIMBURSEMENTS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My soon to be ex wife and I are getting our divorce with the assistance of a paralegal. That person has prepared a Marital Settlement Agreement. The paralegal says she cannot give us legal advice. There is a phrase in the agreement that says something about each of us waiving Epstein reimbursements. I have no idea what this means.
A. "Epstein reimbursements" deal with the question: "How do we divide debts that we incurred during the marriage, where one of us made payments after we separated and up to the time of divorce?"
A common situation is that parties have credit card debt that needs to be divided in the divorce. Say there was a balance of $10,000 owing to American Express on December 31st, the day before your wife drank too much at the office New Year's celebration and had an unfortunate tryst with her boss - this isn't the first time this has happened, and your New Year's resolution is to move out (sorry, I am just trying to be colorful), and so you do move out the next day. Her reaction is to file for divorce, because her boss looks way more interesting to her than you do these days.
Under this example January 1 is your date of separation. From the date of separation on, the earnings of either spouse are no longer community property, or joint earnings, but instead these earnings belong to each of you separately. Family Code § 771.
Often where a credit card is in the name of one person alone, the other spouse or domestic partner doesn't contribute to the payments after separation - sometimes because they won't and sometimes because they can't. But as between the two of you, the $10,000 is jointly owed to American Express, even if the other spouse did not sign the credit card application or is not named on the card, or on the statement. This is also true whether or not both parties directly benefitted from the use of the credit card - for instance, maybe the $10,000 was charged by your wife to buy shoes over the course of the past year to help make herself feel better about the fact that you never have intimate conversations with her any more (or for any other reason), or perhaps you charged the card to add more chrome to your Harley Davidson FatBoy because your hairline is receding.
If the card is not paid, American Express can pursue collection either against the spouse who is the account holder, or against the community property of both spouses. Family Code § 910. If the credit card is in your name alone, it will be your credit that might be ruined if the monthly installments are missed.
Now again, as between you and your wife, the general rule is that each of you owe one-half of the credit card debt which means that all other things being equal, in a property settlement or if a Judge is forced to divide your property and estate, if one party is assigned 100% of the debt the other owes a reimbursement of $5,000. Lawyers and Judges speak of assigning the debt to one party or the other on the "marital balance sheet" which implies a corresponding credit or right of setoff against the division of some other item of property.
There are, of course, exceptions. These exceptions frequently include (a) situations where a debt was incurred in breach of a fiduciary obligation owing the community estate or to the other spouse and (b) where one party retains the benefit of the property that the credit card was used to acquire (believe it or not, I am frequently asked about breast augmentations or other cosmetic surgeries - except in extreme cases, courts do not charge one party for these). For example, if when you learned of your wife's affair your reaction included flying to Las Vegas and having a wild weekend and you recklessly charged the $10,000 at the casino, this might be considered a breach of fiduciary duty and result in the entire $10,000 being your responsibility even though the two of you had yet to physically separate. Or, if instead you spent the $10,000 buying more chrome for your Harley and you expect to keep it in the divorce, then even though the $10,000 was otherwise a community obligation equitable considerations may result in the debt being assigned to you. If in the divorce the two of you decide to sell the Harley but the chrome you spent $10,000 buying adds only $2,000 in value to the sale's price, in that case the $10,000 remains a joint obligation because you neither breached a fiduciary duty nor retained a sufficient benefit that the law would charge you for it and the asset is being divided. Another common situation is where one spouse retains the furniture or refrigerator charged at Lowes - in that case more of the debt may be assigned to that party.
Assuming you continue to make monthly payments of principal and interest on the credit card up to the point of dividing the debt in a marital settlement agreement (MSA), or if a judge makes the call for you both after a trial, as a general proposition your wife owes you one-half of all those payments. These are called Epstein credits or Epstein reimbursements in California, and many other community property states have similar rules. These are also called equitable reimbursements, meaning that the right to be reimbursed is not absolute and certain but that the court has wide discretion to grant the reimbursement or not depending upon fairness. Typically California family law courts do grant the reimbursement so long as the parties benefited equally (or the money was equally wasted).
The principle in California was first set forth in the case of Marriage of Epstein (1979) 24 Cal.3d 76. It is to be distinguished from the rule that the debt itself, if community, must be divided equally between parties in divorce. Family Code § 2550. It covers reimbursements rights that accrue between physical separation and the date of ultimate division of the liability.
So, the agreement the paralegal has prepared includes an agreement each of you is giving up any right to be reimbursed for debt related payments made after separation. You are not being asked to waive your credit for $5,000 if the $10,000 debt is assigned to you (unless there is a separate provision assigning the credit card balance to you completely). You are being asked to waive all the debt maintenance up to this point. It is not an unusual clause in an MSA, but it may or may not be in your best interests to agree to it.
Epstein credits take a variety of forms, and are not limited to credit card debt. The Epstein case itself involved a husband who voluntarily made the mortgage, insurance, and tax payments on the family residence during the separation period. Wife and their son occupied the home. Up to that point the law was that if one party used separate property (earnings after separation) to pay community debt (the mortgage, etc., on the residence), there was a presumption that this was intended to be a gift to the community unless an agreement could be proved that it was not to be a gift.
Each party may have separate Epstein claims as to different items of debt.
Upon separating, it is a smart idea to get and keep copies of credit card statements and statements for all liability accounts as of the date of separation. From an accounting point of view, the date of separation is a critical snapshot of a point in time. It is essential that the parties maintain these records as proof of what the numbers were, and of what payments were made afterwards.
Whether or not you should waive the Epstein reimbursements that might be owing you is part of the give and take of negotiating a divorce settlement. These are usually simple accounting issues, but not always.
If your Wife gets an attorney that attorney might try to convince you to waive the Espteins, or hope that you don't understand the concept or have it independently explained to you. In my experience where we are speaking in terms of vanilla debt (meaning there is no questionable conduct and the charges were incurred in the normal course), your wife's lawyer would also agree that you are entitled to these reimbursements without a fight if you know enough to insist.
There is an important flip side and hybrid of the Epstein reimbursement concept - that of Watts charges and credits. The deal generally with who pays for the beneficial use of community property (i.e., the home) during the separation period, once the divorce is finalized.
I will address those separately.
Thurman W. Arnold III
http://www.ThurmanArnold.com |
 |
| Continue reading "What are EPSTEIN REIMBURSEMENTS?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| April 07, 2010 |
| When I get MARRIED, how do I avoid my husband's DEBT? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. If I marry is it possible to avoid any of my fiance's debt liability?
A. Yes. First, your separate property doesn't become liable for a spouse's premarital debt simply by marrying. But community property as it comes into being does.
Secondly, to the extent you or your spouse will incur debt during marriage, prior to marriage both can agree to eliminate or restrict the creation of community property as between you. This is accomplished through a prenuptial or premarital agreement. Essentially you agree to restrict or eliminate the creation of community property in the first instance, since that will remain liable for debts incurred prior to (with some exceptions) and during the marriage, and so you can ensure that your separate property remains protected.
None of this applies to debts you jointly incur - the joint credit card, the jointly purchased car, or the jointly refinanced home. This is why creditors try to insist that both spouses sign loans.
But you can modify your behavior in order to protect yourself by not signing. It is possible to enter a post-nuptial agreement which achieves substantially the same thing, although it won't necessarily change the character of debt incurred prior to its signing but it may nonetheless eliminate future community debt by eliminating community property. Remember, as between the two of you, you cannot affect third party's rights who are not parties to your post marital agreement, and to do so may be considered a fraud upon creditors which means the agreement may be set aside and voided.
Thurman W. Arnold III
Desert Cities Divorce |
 |
| Continue reading "When I get MARRIED, how do I avoid my husband's DEBT?" » |
|
Permalink |
| |
| April 07, 2010 |
| Am I LIABLE for my husband's NURSING HOME DEBT? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
 Q. Am I liable for my husband's nursing home bills?
A. Yes, under most circumstances.
Community and both spouse's separate property is liable for the other spouse's "necessaries of life" while the spouses are living together, and even when they are living separately - unless they are living separately by agreement within the meaning of
Family Code section 4302. If this occurs at a time when there is no community property but the other spouse does have separate property, there is a right of reimbursement for a period of time (i.e., if the other spouse dies there is a time limit on seeking reimbursement).
Note that spouses each owe a duty to support the other out of their own separate property if there is no community property. Family Code section 4301.
"Necessaries of life" include food, shelter, clothing, and the expenses of a final illness.
Thurman W. Arnold III |
 |
| Continue reading "Am I LIABLE for my husband's NURSING HOME DEBT?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| April 07, 2010 |
| Am I LIABLE for my husband's GAMBLING DEBTS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |

Q. My husband won't stop gambling. Am I liable for his gambling debts?
A. The community property that the two of you own is liable as to satisfy his gambling obligations, assuming there is any left. Whether you are liable to the Indian Casino or Las Vegas hotel beyond your share of the community depends upon whether you have an independent contractual relationship with them - i.e., a line of credit in your name.
As between you and your husband, unless you consented to his gambling he may owe you (if your separate property is somehow attached to satisfy the debt) or to the community estate a reimbursement or indemnification right.
If he is a professional gambler and this is his "work" the outcome would be different. The outcome may also depend on whether the community benefited from the gambling, i.e., if winnings were used to support the community, then a court may deem it fair to share the obligation as to "losings".
This right of reimbursement would similarly exist if he squandered money on drugs, or prostitutes, and so on - assuming you can prove it and trace the money! The question is whether you consented and ripens when you can establish that his conduct violated fiduciary duties owing you. One never knows, however, how a judge will treat this on a case by case basis but the law if moving towards greater accountability.
If his gambling does amount to a breach of fiduciary duties owing you as a result of your marriage or domestic partnership, you have substantial remedies. Try our search at the top right of the page to learn about those topics.
Thurman W. Arnold III |
 |
| Continue reading "Am I LIABLE for my husband's GAMBLING DEBTS?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| April 07, 2010 |
| Q. Who is liable for debts that we assign between us in our divorce settlement? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. Who is liable for debts that we assign between us in our divorce settlement?
A. After property is divided incident to divorce or legal separation it is no longer community property; it is the separate property of the recipient. This separate property always remains liable to pay your own debts no matter when they were incurred. Even if that debt is assigned to the other spouse in the divorce division, you remain liable on the debt as between you and the creditor. Family Code section 916(a)(1).
Your separate property and what you receive at the time of the division is not liable for the other spouse's debts, whether incurred before or during marriage, and you are not liable for those debts unless the debt was assigned to you in the settlement.
If your property is nonetheless applied to satisfy your spouse's debts by a creditor, you have a further right of reimbursement against your former spouse, plus interest and possibly attorney fees.
|
 |
| Continue reading "Q. Who is liable for debts that we assign between us in our divorce settlement?" » |
|
Permalink |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| Am I LIABLE for my husband's CHILD SUPPORT ARREARS from his first marriage? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. Can the property I owned before marriage be taken to pay for my husband's unpaid child support from his first marriage?
A. No matter when child support, or spousal support from a prior marriage for that matter, is ordered or modified your separate property is not liable for the debt and you are entitled to be reimbursed if it comes to be used to pay such debts without your consent. Family Code section 915. Community property, on the other hand, is liable for support debts.
However, there may be a right to reimbursement by the community (of which you own half) as against the other spouse's separate property if any of their separate property existed and was therefore available to pay the debt at the time the community paid the obligation.
|
 |
| Continue reading "Am I LIABLE for my husband's CHILD SUPPORT ARREARS from his first marriage? " » |
|
Permalink |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| Are my EARNINGS during marriage LIABLE for my spouse's PREMARRIAGE DEBTS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. Are my earnings liable for my spouse's debts incurred before marriage? A. Your earnings during marriage are not liable for your spouse's debt incurred before marriage so long as these earnings when received are held in a deposit account which is not also in your spouse's name, and as to which they have no right to withdraw funds.
Once these monies go into the common pot, however, they become available to satisfy debts incurred prior to marriage. Family Code section 911.
You earnings are liable for debts the other spouse incurs after the date of marriage, because the earnings are community property and debts incurred during marriage are community debts.
The only way to avoid this is by way a prenup or post-nup established before the debt is incurred (which agreement may limit or preclude the creation of community property). |
 |
| Continue reading "Are my EARNINGS during marriage LIABLE for my spouse's PREMARRIAGE DEBTS?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| Am I liable for my husband's BUSINESS DEBTS? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My Husband is being sued for a business debt. I am not named in the lawsuit. Am I still liable?
A. You do not need to be named in a lawsuit against your husband to collect a debt incurred by him prior to separation in order to be liable at least to the extent of your interest in the remaining community property. This debt includes any type of claims against him (e.g., a contractor being sued for defective workmanship or a lawyer being sued for malpractice).
However, your separate property cannot be held liable for such a debt, or even for "necessaries of life", unless you are named and joined in the proceedings. You may have reimbursement rights against your Husband or the community in such event.
Please see other blog answers under the "Debt" category for more information.
Thurman W. Arnold III |
 |
| Continue reading "Am I liable for my husband's BUSINESS DEBTS?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| My Wife caused a CAR ACCIDENT. Am I LIABLE too? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My Wife caused a car accident. We were underinsured. Am I liable if the wreck occurred before we separated? A. Personal injuries and property damages caused during marriage get a different treatment under the California Family Code.
FC Section 1000 sets up a preference for which funds, community or separate, are used to satisfy the debt. If the liability occurred while the married person was performing an activity for the benefit of the community, like going to work or to the food store, the liability is first applied to the community estate and if that is exhausted, the balance is applied to your wife's separate estate.
On the other hand, if she was going to see her lover, the liability is first applied to her separate estate and then the excess, if any, still due is applied to the community.
In either event, there is still a right of reimbursement from the tortfeasor spouse, but this right expires after 7 years.
A local case decided in the appellate courts in 1996, handled by one of my father's former law partners, dealt with dividing a $150,000 liability owing to the Palm Springs Tramway on account of monies embezzled by the Wife as a ticket taker over a number of years (embezzlement is both an intentional tort and a crime). She spent all the money for the benefit of the community, although her husband did not know of the source of the money at the time. Not surprisingly this led to divorce, and the ruling was that both spouses owed one-half of the $150,000 settlement, but only the wife owed the income taxes and the attorney fees for defending the criminal and civil cases. (Marriage of Bell). Husband had directly benefited from these ill-gotten gains, and he wasn't protected because he did not participate in the theft. |
 |
| Continue reading "My Wife caused a CAR ACCIDENT. Am I LIABLE too?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| Must I pay any of my husband's STUDENT LOAN if we DIVORCE? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. If my Husband and I divorce, am I stuck with any of his student loan? A. Most likely not.
Upon separation and dissolution of marriage, a spouse's separate loan is assigned pursuant to Family Code section 2627 and 2641. Subject to certain exceptions, the general rule is "[a] loan incurred during marriage for the education or training or a party shall not be included among the liabilities of the community for the purposes of division but shall be assigned for payment by the party."
The exception is the Court's power to divide the education debt differently if it would "unjust" not to, as where the community has "substantially benefited" from the education or the loan. A presumption exists that no such benefit is derived if the is less than 10 years old at the time the divorce is filed but that the community has substantially benefited if the loan is more than 10 years!
If the student loan money was really used to pay for groceries and rent, for instance, the court may equitably divide the it. |
 |
| Continue reading "Must I pay any of my husband's STUDENT LOAN if we DIVORCE?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| If my Wife and I are separated, do I have to pay the CREDIT CARDS she ran up after leaving? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. My Wife and I are separated. Am I liable for her debts she incurs once we split up?
A. If you are a co-signor on, for instance, a credit card account you are also liable to the credit card company. The fact of divorce or separation does not itself alter your obligations with third parties (since they are not allowed to participate in the divorce and they would be prejudiced s if you could unilaterally disavow liability because of divorce).
As between you and spouse, you may or may not be obligated for one-half the debt depending on when the other spouse incurred it - if after separation, generally speaking they owe it. If the debt was incurred before separation, sometimes the debt will be assigned to one party without offset depending upon what it was for and whether they have the use of that property that the debt acquired - for instance, the furniture charged on the credit card or those car lease payments. Family Code section 910(b). Keep in mind, however, that if you move back in together (reconcile) you may lose these protections. The surest way to establish that a separation has in fact occurred is through filing a proceeding or Judgment for Dissolution or Legal Separation, although separations are suspect where parties continue to live under the same roof.
The Court does have the power under Family Code section 2623 to divide post-separation debts for "necessaries of life of either spouse or the necessaries of life of the children of the marriage" as between the parties "according to the parties' respective needs and abilities to pay at the time the debt was incurred." This is a discretionary call for the judge, and generally debt is assigned to the party who incurs it - particularly if that party is already receiving court ordered or even voluntary child or spousal support. If the post-separation debt is not for a "necessary of life" it will assigned to the spouse who incurred the debt.
Once your divorce is final or a decree of legal separation has been entered, each spouse is solely liable for all debts incurred thereafter, including necessaries. A Judgment or Marital Termination Agreement is going to assign the debt existing as of that date as between the parties.
TWA
|
 |
| Continue reading "If my Wife and I are separated, do I have to pay the CREDIT CARDS she ran up after leaving?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 18, 2010 |
| Am I LIABLE for my spouse's PREMARITAL DEBT? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. Am I liable for myspouse's pre-marital debt?
A. Yes, and no. Whether you are liable for debts of your spouse depends on what kind of property exists and is available to satisfy a debt. Community property is liable and therefore available to pay a debt either spouse incurs before marriage and during marriage, regardless which spouse controls that property. Family Code section 910. Community property is all property, real or personal, wherever situated, acquired by a married person during the marriage while domiciled in California. Family Code section 760.
Your separate property is generally not liable for a debt incurred by the other spouse before or during the marriage (your separate property is always liable for your own debts, regardless when incurred). Family Code section 913(b)(1). Separate property is all property you own before marriage and all property you acquire during marriage by gift or inheritance. Family Code section 770. Separate property also includes the rents, profits, and issues from your separate property (i.e., passive separate property increases) and "earnings and accumulations" while you are living apart. An exception to this rule limiting your separate property liability concerns "necessaries of life". Your separate property is liable for these necessaries (food, clothing, shelter, medical) for your spouse even if you are living apart, unless you are living apart under a written agreement that includes a provision for support.
It sometimes happens that a creditor manages to levy against the nondebtor spouse's separate property; if that occurs, the innocent spouse has a reimbursement claim against the community property estate, or, if there is no such estate then against the other spouse's separate property. This reimbursement right must be asserted, as mentioned below, or it evaporates. Also, if you consent to the payment from your separate property you may have made a gift of it for the benefit of the other spouse. Consent would include writing or signing the check to pay the debt from your separate property account. We are not talking here about using separate assets to acquire community property (as in making a mortgage payment); a difficult set of rules apply where property is being "acquired during marriage" which include reimbursement rights.
In order to be mostly protected you need to keep your separate property separate. If you commingle it with the other party's separate property, or with the community, a creditor cannot be expected to know what is yours verses what is both of yours. This separation of finances is always a good idea, and not just for debt purposes. As between you and your spouse if you commingle monies then you may have a right of reimbursement if you can trace the flow of funds.
The rules and consequences differ depending on whether we are talking about you versus a creditor, or you versus the spouse. Q. Is there a time limit on exercising my reimbursement rights?A. You have to seek reimbursement on the earlier date of (a) within 3 years of when you actually know your property was applied to satisfy the other spouse's debt or (b) during a pending dissolution or legal separation proceeding. Family Code section 920(c). Otherwise, reimbursement under these code sections is waived. Depending upon the facts, you may still have a breach of fiduciary duty claim against your spouse that survives up to the point of the dissolution.
Divorce Attorney Thurman W. Arnold III
|
 |
| Continue reading "Am I LIABLE for my spouse's PREMARITAL DEBT?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| January 17, 2010 |
| What Is a LEGAL SEPARATION in California? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. What is meant by separation in California?
A. There are two contexts in which the word separation is used in divorce and family law in California: (1) Legal Separation and (2) physical separation. Both are important, but in practice the concept of physical separation has a far huger impact on people's lives.
A Decree of Legal Separation in California is identical for all purposes to a Decree of Dissolution of marriage, with one critical distinction: A judgment for legal separation leaves the marriage (and the marital "bonds") intact. The parties remain married, and so neither can remarry. But for all other purposes, the marriage is effectively dissolved.
There are religious and personal reasons why two people might want to do this, and there are some practical reasons involving most notably health insurance but sometimes job related benefits why two married persons might choose this over divorce.
A decree of legal separation cuts off the creation of community property thereafter, which includes liability for community debts as well. It is possible to divide all property between the parties, to fix all rights and entitlements to spousal support, and to deal with custody, visitation, and child support issues, and yet remain legally married. It requires the consent of both parties, because if either party objects to a legal separation or seeks a dissolution instead, a Judgment of Legal Separation cannot be granted. Even if the parties are in agreement concerning a legal separation, neither is precluded from later seeking to terminate marital status through a subsequent dissolution action. If the parties have reached a legal separation agreement, or if the Court enters a Judgment of Legal Separation, a subsequent action does not undo any of that.
This is a fairly unusual outcome. In my substantial experience, very few parties have been in agreement on this way of resolving their joint affairs and it doesn't usually make sense unless there are unique health, insurance, or religious or familial reasons for not dissolving the marriage.
TWA |
 |
| Continue reading "What Is a LEGAL SEPARATION in California?" » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
| December 30, 2009 |
| My New Wife Works. Can this NEW MATE INCOME Be Used to Increase my CHILD SUPPORT? |
| Posted By Thurman Arnold |
 |
Q. I have two children from a previous marriage. I remarried two years ago, and my new spouse earns $8,500 month. While my hours have been reduced during this recession and my monthly gross averages $3,500. The ex is threatening to take me back to Court to increase child support based upon my new mate's income. Can she do this?
A. Of course ex-spouses can always take the other back to court, but that doesn't mean they will win. We call these support modification proceedings. In order to obtain a new order, she must prove there has been some material change of circumstances with regard to her needs, the childrens' needs, or your ability to pay a greater sum in support.
The key California statute on when and how new mate income can be considered is Family Code section 4057.5. The basic rule is that courts cannot consider new mate or nonmarital partner income in the context of making child support or support spousal orders. This means as a general proposition that your new wife's income of $8,500/month is not to be inputted into the support guideline formulas.
There are two exceptions where new mate income may need to be disclosed and where it can be considered in setting child support: 1) Where there are "extraordinary circumstances" that would cause the exclusion of this income to create an extreme or severe hardship to a supported child. However, if this hardship is shown, the court must first consider the effect of inclusion of new mate income on any other children including the new mate's children, and so that their interests trump the hardship to the child for which support orders are being sought. 2) By marrying somebody with high earnings, a spouse will pick up additional taxes based upon the other's income. Since as far as the IRS and California Franchise Tax Board (FTB) is concerned, you are liable under community property laws for one-half of your new mate's income, regardless whether you file jointly, the added tax consequences upon this additional income can actually be the basis for a downward decrease in child support (County of Tulare v. Campbell) since there is less after tax income available to you from which to pay support.
There are very few reported California appellate decision on new mate income or which explain how FC section 4057.5 is to be applied. In Marriage of Loh (93 CA4 325) a mother/former spouse convinced a trial court, based upon photos of the father's extravagant lifestyle (homes, cars, etc.) which were funded by his girlfriend's income and assets, to impute income to him for purposes of basing a child support award. The appellate court reversed, stating "Evidence of lifestyle, particularly a lifestyle subsidized by a new 'nonmarital partner', is not a cheap substitute for proper discovery of income reported on tax returns."
In a very recent appellate decision (Marriage of Knowles (Oct. 2009) 178 CA4 35) a trial court was reversed after it accepted the former wife's argument that the community property income and assets of both he and his new wife should be used to determine his income available for support. The trial court's mistake was include the half that belonged to the new wife, although it could have included just the half that belong to him. There was no evidence of extreme hardship that justified considering the new mate's half.
We’ve waited a long time for another case dealing with consideration of new-mate income under Fam C §4057.5. One of the few cases that has, In re Marriage of
Wood (1995) 37 Cal.App.4th 1059 is cited here, but it came down in 1995. Neither the statute nor the cases provide any definitive answer regarding what actually constitutes either an “extraordinary case” or an “extreme and severe hardship,” although Wood seems to say that new-mate income can be considered where one of the parents is voluntarily unemployed or underemployed.
Rather than arguing for NMI (new mate income), a party seeking to have income assigned to a person who has remarried or is living with a nonmarital partner may find more success by arguing that income should be imputed to that spouse on the basis that they have an earning capacity which is not being realized. For instance, if because your new spouse had sufficient income you chose to quit work or take a lower paying job it might appear you are shirking your support responsibilities. Rather than charging you with NMI, a trial court could find that you had the ability to earn X dollars a month and so charge you for this phantom income by making that the basis for a support award. Then, the community property (including your new mate's share) could be tapped to satisfy this obligation.
Incidentally, a California prenup can be an effective way to limit this exposure.
|
 |
| Continue reading "My New Wife Works. Can this NEW MATE INCOME Be Used to Increase my CHILD SUPPORT? " » |
|
Permalink | Comments(0) |
| |
|
|
|
|