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Recent Posts in Legal Separations Category

July 16, 2010
  DISCOVERY in California Marital Proceedings - What Are Requests for Admission?
Posted By Thurman Arnold
Q.  How do I use Requests for Admission in my dissolution  proceeding?

A.  Requests for Admission ("RFA's") can be a useful discovery tool in family law proceedings because they allow parties in divorce and partnership litigation to resolve issues one way or another so that no evidence need be introduced at trial by asking the other party to admit or deny something.  This typically involves establishing that certain documents are genuine (i.e., a prenuptial agreement entered into before marriage or a transfer deed or promissory note or copies of documents where original are missing or destroyed).  Once this document is admitted as genuine, no further foundational evidence needs to be offered to admit the item into evidence.  Other uses include establishing that certain property belongs to the community estate, or that it is one party's separate property.  In such situations no further evidence need be offered on the subject issue at any later hearing in order for the Family Court to take what was admitted to be established fact.  Once something is established in this way, no contradicting evidence can be introduced to disprove it.

Requests for Admission are governed by California Code of Civil Procedure section 2033.010 and the statutes that follow with that code.  We have provided some of the more important ones on our Family Code Statutes page. 

You are entitled to ask a total of 35 RFA's as a matter of right.  But you can ask as many as you need, as long as they are requested for a proper purpose, relevant, not overly burdensome, and you also have executed and supplied the Declaration for Additional Discovery required by CCP § 2033.050.

There is a Judicial Council form that you can use for RFA's, but it is not required.  I will upload and link to that form shortly.  I also intend to provide my own form that you can modify for your use on our California Family Law Form Library page.

Another important use for Admission's Requests is that you can combine them with Civil Form Interrogatories, Number 17.1, which requires the responding party to state all facts and evidence that they know of, and other relevant information, for each RFA which they refuse to admit.  This can flesh out claims and defenses of the other party that you may be wondering about, and the evidence and witnesses which the other party claims will support them.  The answers to these form interrogatories may also establish that a denial of an otherwise undisputed fact, or genuine document, was not in good faith.

One of the chief benefits of RFA's beyond putting to rest matters that are really not issues (and hence saving the time and money to otherwise prove or disprove them), is that a failure to admit them in good faith gives the Court discretion to award the asking party their legal expenses and costs in producing evidence on those same issues if the Court later decides at trial that they were not reasonably in dispute.

As with some other types of discovery (interrogatories and production requests) the responding party has thirty days to answer (plus five more if you serve them by mail).  Make sure you always provide a proof of service signed by a nonparty with any type of discovery you serve.

If the other party fails to respond to your Requests for Admission, you are entitled to file a motion that the requests be deemed admitted.  Other sanctions might be available, like a court finding no evidence challenging the proposed undisputed items may be offered by the other side in later proceedings.

The subject of objections to discovery is a complicated one for another day.  Check our search engine to see if I 've written about it by the time you've landed here.

TWA




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June 11, 2010
  What is a GAVRON WARNING and how does it affect my right to SPOUSAL SUPPORT?
Posted By Thurman Arnold
Q.  I was at our first court hearing last week requesting child and spousal support, and my husband's attorney asked the judge to give me a "Gavron Warning".  The judge said he would consider giving it to me at a future hearing and didn't go along with the lawyer, but I don't understand what this meant.  The judge did order my husband to pay child and spousal support.  What do I do if this comes up again?

A.     Gavron warnings deal with the question of when a supported spouse may be expected to become partially or totally self-sufficient, so that they can no longer be expected to rely on a former spouse for economic support.  At some point the entitlement to be supported usually ends. 

Where the court intends that party to become self-supporting by a given date, it generally must first give that person advance warning.  Marriage of Gavron (1988) 203 Cal.App.3d 705 is a relatively recent case which first articulated this policy.  This advance notice is now called the Gavron Warning.   It does not impact child support.

This represents a trend in the law away from a rule which once entitled a spouse (typically women) to lifelong alimony to a right to receive spousal support for only so long as necessary to become self-supporting.  It applies equally to men and women, and to domestic partners.  There is no question that this trend has gained legislative acceptance, and in 2000 Family Code section 4330 was enacted.  It provides in part: 

"(b) When making an order for spousal support, the court may advise the recipient of support that he or she should make reasonable efforts to assist in providing for his or her support needs, taking into account the particular circumstances considered by the court pursuant to Section 4320, unless, in the case of a marriage of long duration as provided for in Section 4336, the court decides this warning is inadvisable."

Note that this statute states the court "may advise" the support recipient to make reasonable efforts to assist in supporting themselves.  This means it is up to a judge to decide at any given stage oin any given case when and whether or not to give the warning.  One of the factors that the court must consider is the length of the marriage.  

Family Code section 4336 defines a marriage of long duration as 10 years or more.  There are cases that have decided that this 10 year rule is not inflexible, and that marriages of less than ten years may qualify for this protection where the facts warrant it (i.e., disability, domestic violence, the parties' respective ages).

The effect of the Gavron decision is to require that fair advance notice in fact be given before a court can properly terminate or reduce spousal support as of a specified future date.  The idea is that a supported spouse should not be punished for failing to meet the court's unrevealed expectation that they would become self-sufficient - absent this required advance notice it is judicial error to abruptly terminate an alimony order because of a failure to make good faith efforts to become self-supporting.

However, that notice need not be express - although it usually is.  For instance, your husband's attorney was competently (but aggressively) representing your husband by asking the court early on to give you an express warning.  He or she will probably ask again at every future hearing until the judge finally does give you the Gavron admonition.  That warning need not be in any magic formula:  It merely needs to clearly tell the supported spouse that they are expected to become self-supporting.  The classic language is contained in the FL-180 Judgment of Annulment, Legal Separation or Dissolution form and reads:  "It is the goal of this state that each party will make reasonable good faith efforts to become selfsupporting as provided for in Family Code section 4320. The failure to make reasonable good faith efforts maybe one of the factors considered by the court as a basis for modifying or terminating spousal or partner support."

Except in short marriages of less than 10 years, most judges will not issue Gavron warnings early on because during the early divorce process it is not reasonable that suddenly a homemaker should become self-supporting.  At the time a Judgment of Dissolution or Legal Separation is entered, however, and possibly except in cases of very lengthy marriages lasting 20 years or more (or where the parties are too old to be expected to retrain), most judges will give the Gavron Warning.

Additionally, Gavron language is often found in Marital Termination Agreements (also known as MSA's for 'marital settlement agreements').  Whether the language is included in the settlement agreements is a matter of negotiation between the parties.  As a recipient you want to resist it.  As a payor spouse, you want to insist upon it.  The longer the marriage, the less reasonable it is to include such language.  For instance, when I represent women over the age of 50 with marriages in excess of 10-15 years, I counsel my client not to permit it.  On the other hand, if I am representing the high earner spouse, I always argue for its inclusion.  This is one of those subtle areas where having the right attorney for you can make a huge difference in your future security.  However, as you may have noted above the language has become so standard now that it is included in the FL-180 Judgment form and be used for or against you even if you never read that piece of paper (one you don't sign).

In answer to your question what to do when this comes up again, urge the court that this is too soon and too early, and not reasonable given that you have devoted your married life to child-rearing and to helping your client develop the career that you both once believed would support the family until retirement and ultimately death.

This is just an overview of the Gavron effect.  I will give more education on the topic in future blogs.

T.W. Arnold III 
http://www.DesertDivorceandFamilyLawyer.com










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April 24, 2010
  Will California recognize a SAME SEX MARRIAGE from Vermont?
Posted By Thurman Arnold
Q.   My same sex spouse and I were married in Vermont in 2001 but moved to Palm Springs five months ago.  Now it looks like we are splitting up.  She works full time and I take care of the home.  Can I seek spousal support in California and get our marriage dissolved here?

A.  As you probably know, Vermont was the first state to offer civil union status to same-sex couples (2000) which was identical to that offered to opposite-sex couples.  California was the first state to offer any legal status to same-sex couples.  Today the only states/territories that permit same-sex marrriages or the equivalent civil unions are Connecticut, Washington D.C., Iowa, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, and Vermont.

Other states give varying recognition to same sex partnerships - for instance, California, Nevada, Washingon, and Oregon give broad recognition to domestic partners and other states like Colorado and Maine give limited recognition. 

In California some 18,000 couples marry between June 16, 2008 and November 4, 2008, when the window closed on same-sex marriage according to our Supreme Court's ruling in Straus v. Horton.  Our officed has assisted some of these couples in divorce in our offices since that time.

Even though it is not presently possible for same-sex couples to marry in California, California will recognize valid marriages and civil unions from other states. 

On January 1, 2010, Family Code section 308 was amended to recognize any "marriage" between two persons of the same sex outside of California which is valid by the laws of that state so long as the marriage was contracted prior to November 5, 2008 (the date the California Constitutional Amendment was upheld prohibiting same-sex "marriage").

As to same sex marriages that are lawful in other states which occur after November 5, 2008, California will not allow them to be called "marriages" but will accord these couples all of the rights of California law concerning marriage.

This leaves open the question of what we call dissolutions between "married" same sex couples in California that were entered after November 4, 2008.  Clearly in your case California recognizes a full-blown marriage in the traditional use of the term because you legally married in 2001 in Vermont.  But for those married since 11/4/08 in another jurisdiction there is uncertainty which California Judicial Council forms (which are mandatory) be utilized because those marriages are not domestic partnerships (Family Code section 299.2), nor are they "marriages."  Our office practice will be to simply use the old forms and modify them as necessary.

You may file a marriage dissolution in this state and request all orders that any divorcing couple could request; however, please note that California requires that you be a resident of this state for at least six months before filing for Dissolution but that you can opt to file a Legal Separation Petition at this time, obtain the necessary support orders, and then file an amended pleading for Dissolution once you perfect residency.

Good luck!

Thurman W. Arnold III
http://www.ThurmanArnold.com
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April 07, 2010
  When can I file for LEGAL SEPARATION in CALIFORNIA?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.    Can I file for legal separation in California if I just moved here?

A.   In order to be entitled to file an action for legal separation, a spouse does not need to be a resident of the State of California, or of a particular county, when they file; this is not true of divorce.  To be legally entitled to file a dissolution proceeding here, you must already be a California resident temporarily living elsewhere or you must have been physically present in this state for at least six months.

For example, assuming Mrs. Smith from Idaho moved to California two months ago and now wishes to dissolve the marriage in this State, she has not yet met the California residency requirements for divorce and if she files an action for dissolution it will be denied - especially if Mr. Smith objects that she is not a resident of this State.  But perhaps Mrs. Smith is in immediate need of spousal support - she is fleeing domestic violence by Mr. Smith who is a raging alcoholic - in that case, even though she is not domiciled here and has not been here for at least six months, she can file an action for legal separation and obtain temporary support orders and possibly attorney fees against Mr. Smith, so long as there is a basis for California to assume jurisdiction over Mr. Smith once he is served. 

After the time has passed (6 months) for Mrs. Smith to establish her residency here, she is entitled to amend to the Petition to now seek a divorce.  In the meantime, she has been protected.  (While a California Court can always dissolve a marriage, in order for property or financial orders to be valid as against Mr. Smith, California must have jurisdiction over him by way of his presence here at least at time of service, his consent to jurisdiction, or other legally sufficient contacts with this state).

For more information, please view our practice page here.

TWA
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January 18, 2010
  If my Wife and I are separated, do I have to pay the CREDIT CARDS she ran up after leaving?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.     My Wife and I are separated. Am I liable for her debts she incurs once we split up?

A. If you are a co-signor on, for instance, a credit card account you are also liable to the credit card company.  The fact of divorce or separation does not itself alter your obligations with third parties (since they are not allowed to participate in the divorce and they would be prejudiced s if you could unilaterally disavow liability because of divorce).   

As between you and spouse, you may or may not be obligated for one-half the debt depending on when the other spouse incurred it - if after separation, generally speaking they owe it.  If the debt was incurred before separation, sometimes the debt will be assigned to one party without offset depending upon what it was for and whether they have the use of that property that the debt acquired - for instance, the furniture charged on the credit card or those car lease payments.  Family Code section 910(b).  Keep in mind, however, that if you move back in together (reconcile) you may lose these protections.   The surest way to establish that a separation has in fact occurred is through filing a proceeding or Judgment for Dissolution or Legal Separation, although separations are suspect where parties continue to live under the same roof.

The Court does have the power under Family Code section 2623 to divide post-separation debts for "necessaries of life of either spouse or the necessaries of life of the children of the marriage" as between the parties "according to the parties' respective needs and abilities to pay at the time the debt was incurred."  This is a discretionary call for the judge, and generally debt is assigned to the party who incurs it - particularly if that party is already receiving court ordered or even voluntary child or spousal support.  If the post-separation debt is not for a "necessary of life" it will assigned to the spouse who incurred the debt.  

Once your divorce is final or a decree of legal separation has been entered, each spouse is solely liable for all debts incurred thereafter, including necessaries.  A Judgment or Marital Termination Agreement is going to assign the debt existing as of that date as between the parties.

TWA

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January 18, 2010
  Am I LIABLE for my spouse's PREMARITAL DEBT?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.     Am I liable for myspouse's pre-marital debt?

A. Yes, and no. Whether you are liable for debts of your spouse depends on what kind of property exists and is available to satisfy a debt. Community property is liable and therefore available to pay a debt either spouse incurs before marriage and during marriage, regardless which spouse controls that property.  Family Code section 910. Community property is all property, real or personal, wherever situated, acquired by a married person during the marriage while domiciled in California. Family Code section 760.

Your separate property is generally not liable for a debt incurred by the other spouse before or during the marriage (your separate property is always liable for your own debts, regardless when incurred).  Family Code section 913(b)(1).  Separate property is all property you own before marriage and all property you acquire during marriage by gift or inheritance.  Family Code section 770.  Separate property also includes the rents, profits, and issues from your separate property (i.e., passive separate property increases) and "earnings and accumulations" while you are living apart.  An exception to this rule limiting your separate property liability concerns "necessaries of life".  Your separate property is liable for these necessaries (food, clothing, shelter, medical) for your spouse even if you are living apart, unless you are living apart under a written agreement that includes a provision for support.  

It sometimes happens that a creditor manages to levy against the nondebtor spouse's separate property; if that occurs, the innocent spouse has a reimbursement claim against the community property estate, or, if there is no such estate then against the other spouse's separate property.  This reimbursement right must be asserted, as mentioned below, or it evaporates.  Also, if you consent to the payment from your separate property you may have made a gift of it for the benefit of the other spouse.  Consent would include writing or signing the check to pay the debt from your separate property account.  We are not talking here about using separate assets to acquire community property (as in making a mortgage payment); a difficult set of rules apply where property is being "acquired during marriage" which include reimbursement rights.

In order to be mostly protected you need to keep your separate property separate.  If you commingle it with the other party's separate property, or with the community, a creditor cannot be expected to know what is yours verses what is both of yours.  This separation of finances is always a good idea, and not just for debt purposes.  As between you and your spouse if you commingle monies then you may have a right of reimbursement if you can trace the flow of funds.
The rules and consequences differ depending on whether we are talking about you versus a creditor, or you versus the spouse.

Q.     Is there a time limit on exercising my reimbursement rights?

A. You have to seek reimbursement on the earlier date of (a) within 3 years of when you actually know your property was applied to satisfy the other spouse's debt or (b) during a pending dissolution or legal separation proceeding.  Family Code section 920(c).  Otherwise, reimbursement under these code sections is waived.  Depending upon the facts, you may still have a breach of fiduciary duty claim against your spouse that survives up to the point of the dissolution.

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January 17, 2010
  Why is the date of PHYSICAL SEPARATION legally important?
Posted By Thurman Arnold
Q.    Why is the idea of 'physical separation' important in California?

A.    The idea of "physical separation" is one of the most important concepts to California law.  If you think that the presumption that all property acquired during marriage is significant, the notion of physical separation is every bit if not more important.  This appears to be one of the best kept secrets of California family law.

Physical separation is the date that the marriage ends, for most practical purposes.  The date of physical separation is the date that community property ceases to accumulate.  Family Code section 771 states "The earnings and accumulations of a spouse and the minor children living with, or in the custody of, the spouse, while living separate and apart from the other spouse, are the separate property of the spouse."

Once spouses separate, all their earnings and everything that is acquired with those earnings are separate property of each spouse, respectively.

Similarly, upon separation each spouse is no longer liable for the debts of the other spouse.  The community estate is liable for a debt incurred by either spouse "during marriage".  During marriage "does not include the period during which the spouses are living separate and apart before a judgment of dissolution ... or legal separation...."  FC section 910.  An exception exists as to "necessaries" except to the extent that the parties are living separate by agreement and whether or not support is stipulated by that agreement.  FC section 4302.

Separation is of critical importance to the expanding interpretation and growing field of the law of fiduciary duties. The duty of confidentiality that arises because of the marital relationship by legislative fiat ( Family Code section 721) and which gives rise to major exposure for the conduct of spouses with regard to property and money, ceases at separation - meaning spouses no longer have the expectation and right of relying upon one another as trusted partners.  Fiduciary duties continue pursuant to FC sections 1100 et seq. and sections 2100 et seq. as to assets that already exist, or can be considered marital opportunities arising after separation, until the time each asset in question is divided by agreement or court adjudication.  Fiduciary duties are land mines.  A good example of the consequences for breach of fiduciary duty is the Rossi case, where a wife who won the lottery and then filed for divorce the next day claiming she and her husband had already separated.  She fails to list the lottery winnings in her paperwork, and refused to disclose it to the husband later claiming, among other things, that she had been a victim of domestic violence.  Because the husband had no idea about the lottery winnings, he did not dispute the divorce or wife's asserted date of separation until much later when one day he received a letter intended for the wife by a company offering to buy out the winnings.  He called the State Lottery Board, and then filed a motion to set aside the divorce degree and for damages for wife's fraud and breach of fiduciary duty.  The court ordered the wife to disgorge all her winnings (100%) and pay them over to the husband.

The separation date is crucial to understanding reimbursement claims relating to payment on joint and separate debts, or in fixing rights to real property.  For instance, California law provides that the community has an interest in the appreciation of a residence which is owned, meaning title is held, in one spouse's name alone where principal on a mortgage is being paid down.  This is called the Moore-Marsden approach to equitable reimbursement.  If the house appreciates after separation, the titled spouse may want to argue that all that appreciation belongs to them.  Date of separation becomes important to the date of valuing the real estate and determining the relative principal loan amounts.

It is crucial where businesses are involved, regardless whether they are corporations, mom and pop shops, or sole proprietorships.  For instance, what happens when a spouse who controls or who is the business, which was established before or during the marriage, continues to derive income from it after the parties separate?  Maybe the business goes up in value.  Perhaps it goes down in value through market factors, or maybe even the spouse intentionally drives it into the ground in order to reduce the amount that will be ordered to buy out the other spouse's interest.  In all these situations a date of separation determination is crucial.

Another common area where it comes up in with regard to pensions, whether they be defined benefit plans or contributive benefit plans.  Whatever accrues to the spouse who holds the pension by way of his post-separation contributions belongs to them.

Date of separation is also critical to determining the length of the marriage for purposes of spousal support or alimony rights.  It is a snapshot in time with huge ramifications.  It is critical that you hire an attorney who understands how to litigate and present the facts of physical separation.

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January 17, 2010
  What Is a LEGAL SEPARATION in California?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.   What is meant by separation in California?

A.    There are two contexts in which the word separation is used in divorce and family law in California:  (1) Legal Separation and (2) Physical Separation.  Both are extremely important, but in practice the concept of physical separation has a far huger impact on people's lives.

Q.    What is a legal separation?

A.    A decree of Legal Separation in California is identical for all purposes to a Decree of Dissolution of marriage, with one critical distinction:  A judgment for legal separation leaves the marriage (and the marital "bonds") intact.   The parties remain married, and so neither can remarry.  But for all other purposes, the marriage is effectively dissolved. 

There are religious and personal reasons why two people might want to do this, and there are some practical reasons involving most notably health insurance but sometimes job related benefits why two married persons might choose this over divorce. 

A decree of legal separation cuts off the creation of community property thereafter, which includes liability for community debts as well.  It is possible to divide all property between the parties, to fix all rights and entitlements to spousal support, and to deal with custody, visitation, and child support issues, and yet remain legally married.  It requires the consent of both parties, because if either party objects to a legal separation or seeks a dissolution instead, a Judgment of Legal Separation cannot be granted.  Even if the parties are in agreement concerning a legal separation, neither is precluded from later seeking to terminate marital status through a subsequent dissolution action.  If the parties have reached a legal separation agreement, or if the Court enters a Judgment of Legal Separation, a subsequent action does not undo any of that.

This is a fairly unusual outcome.  In my substantial experience, very few parties have been in agreement on this way of resolving their joint affairs and it doesn't usually make sense unless there are unique health, insurance, or religious or familial reasons for not dissolving the marriage.

TWA
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December 29, 2009
  How Are SOCIAL SECURITY benefits Treated In DIVORCE?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.  How are Social Securities Benefits Divided in Divorce?

A.  The Social Security Act of 1935, which as been amended numerous times over the years, is governed solely by the federal law.  States are powerless to effect changes in its rules and procedures.  Social Security benefits are not actually divided in divorce, and California courts do not divide social security rights.  They are not the subject of divorce settlements.  Social security benefits are considered the separate the property of the contributing spouse.  This is odd, since all other retirement plans are considered as part of the marital estate.  Government employees do not contribute to Social Security.  It is wasteful because, as discussed below, multiple former spouses can collect benefits on the same worker's history.  It is unfair because gays and lesbians who are domestic partners under state law gain no rights in the other's work history.

A spouse of a retired or disabled worker is entitled to derivative social security benefits IF the marriage was at least 10 years in duration.  This is defined as the period between the date of marriage and the date of termination of marital status.  It has nothing to do with periods of physical separation, and is not affected by a decree of legal separation.  It has nothing to do with the filing of a divorce itself.

The Social Security Act originally only covered certain job categories which reinforced traditional stereotyped views of family systems. Women generally qualified for insurance only through their husbands or children.  Amendments in 1939 added women, who became eligible to collect on their own earnings' record and became entitled to collect that or 50% of their husband's.  It was not until 1950 that benefits were extended to former spouses with children.  In 1965, former spouses without children were added but they had to have been married at least 20  years.  In 1977 this time period was reduced to 10 years.

Former spouses married for at least 10 years are now entitled to receive 50% of the Social Security beneficiary's benefits (as either derivative or dependent benefits) without reducing the worker's 100% benefit - in order words, in divorce the working spouse who contributed does not divide or share their retirement benefits and so the derivative benefits for former spouses do not cost either spouse.  They certainly, however, cost the taxpayers.  If the worker spouse dies, a former spouse(s) receives 100% of the benefits of the worker as a surviving former spouse.

This has many strange consequences.  One is that since spouses and state courts cannot divide the benefits, and it costs the working former spouse nothing to allow the other spouse to claim these benefits.  Imagine what hardship this might cause to a spouse whose marriage is terminated 9 years, 11 months, and 355 days after the date of marriage.  They would receive no derivative benefits, period.  It would cost the worker spouse nothing to delay dissolving the marriage one more day.  Many spouses who anticipate a future divorce strategically hold off filing until they are assured this time has passed or will pass, for good reason.  In California marital status cannot be terminated earlier than 6 months after the dissolution is filed and served.  I always alert clients to this area of the law, and have many times recommended patience; it would be attorney malpractice not to.  Sometimes raging working spouses want an earlier divorce just to deprive the other of this benefit.  This can be most unfortunate and downright ugly.  There is a procedure in California for dissolving marital status before a divorce case is completely finished (e.g., where property rights have not been determined) called bifurcation of marital status.  Sometimes a spouse wishes to get divorced immediately so that they can remarry, and this can interrupt the 10 years if the Court approves it.  Courts can order that the bifurcating party indemnify the other out of their own pocket for the loss of benefits, but as a practical matter there is no way for this indemnification to occur.  

Another consequence illustrates a major waste within the Social Security system.  Imagine that Fred marries Nancy the homemaker when they are 19.  After 10 years, they divorce. and Fred marries Jennifer.  After 10 years he moves on, dissolving that marriage and marrying Diane next.  He is now 49 years of age.  With his record, he still may have a couple of more marriages in him.  At this point, assuming that none of these three women have remarried or that they remarry after age 60 (a new marriage before age 60 terminates the right to derivative benefits), each of them are eligible to receive 50% of Fred's benefits while he continues to be entitled to 100%.  This means that 250% worth of benefits will be paid upon Fred's earning history alone.  Even better, if Fred dies before them, each ex-wife is thereupon entitled to receive Fred's 100% - which means 300% will be paid out and, since Fred is a serial monogamist, he will probably leave a widow (Tara) who likewise receives 100%.

Also, note the risks to the women.  If Nancy or Jennifer remarry before age 60 they lose any claims to the benefits generated by Fred and the count begins at zero with their new spouse and are based on the new spouse's earnings record with Social Security (assuming this person is not a government worker).  If their new marriage does not make the 10 year mark, they receive nothing from Social Security from either spouse.  This makes you want to reconsider a second marriage doesn't it - at least if you are a non wage earning wife!  Of course, few people ever think about this because they don't know about it; this is one goal of my website as an informational tool.

California has two state pension plans for government workers which exist outside of Social Security.  These are the Public Employees' Retirement System (PERS) and the California State Teachers' Retirement System (CalSTRS).  There are a number of city and county pension plans.  California teachers, state public safety officers (police and firefighters), and other workers who don't pay into the retirement portion of the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA), do not receive social security benefits once they retire. 

They only may be eligible for some SS benefits based upon their spouse's record or their own earnings from private sector jobs.  However, even these benefits may be reduced under the Windful Elimination Provision (WEP) or the Government Pension Offset (GPO).  These are complicated rules and formulas which are beyond the scope of this answer. 

Social Security rights divorce

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December 28, 2009
  What is permanent SPOUSAL SUPPORT in California?
Posted By Thurman Arnold

Q.  What rights do I have to permanent spousal support?

A.  Permanent spousal support is not usually "permanent," although it can be in cases of very long marriages.  Lawyers and judges also refer to it as post-judgment spousal support, alimony, judgment spousal support, or long term support.

Unlike temporary spousal support, long term spousal support is only issued after a final judgment of Dissolution of Marriage or Legal Separation.  It is equally available to domestic partners.  Also unlike temporary support, it is not based on any computer formula or state or county guideline, but must be determined and fixed depending on the facts of every individual case.  If long term support is important to your future wellbeing, you are going to need an experienced support attorney.

There are several very important rules to keep in mind.  First, a marriage in California which lasts more than 10 years (defined as the time between date of marriage and physical separation), is "long term" marriage.  The general rule is that in marriages which are not long term, spousal support should not be payable for more than one-half the length of marriage - or to put in differently, the law presumes that the recipient spouse should be rehabilitated and so become self-supporting in a period equal to 1/2 the marriage.  However, this presumption becomes less important in cases involving older couples, especially where people can not be realistically expected to re-enter the work force, in cases where there children who remain minors, or where the party asking for support has a debilitating disease or disability.

There is no magic ratio for how long a former spouse might be ordered to pay long term support.  Each case depends upon its own facts, the quality of your attorney, and the attitudes of the family court judge.  Even in cases of long term marriages, the support obligation typically will end at some point in time.  However, if usually will not end on its own - meaning that when a trial court orders long term support it will reserve jurisdiction to continue to extent it, until some time when a party petitions the court to terminate support and a judge finally says "enough is a enough." 

Imputed income is often an important argument in long term support marriages, where one party convinces the court that the other party is shirking or failing to genuinely try to become self-supporting.  It is sometimes necessary to have the supported spouse evaluated by a vocational rehabilitation expert. 

There are four components to an award of of permanent support:  1) Amount; 2) duration; 3) substantive increases or decreases over time; and 4) jurisdictional step downs and ultimately a termination date.

Second, Family Code section 4320 is a critical support statute.  I have provided a link and uploaded it so that you may read it.  Essentially it sets forth all the factors that the court must consider in setting post-judgment support, and you will see that it is not an exhaustive list and the court can consider anything else it deems important to the decision.  Support factors include the extent to which the earning capacity of each party is sufficient to maintain the marital standard of living established during the marriage, considering:  a) the marketable skills of the supported party, the job market for those skills, the time and expense required to train that party including education and b) the extent to which the supported party's present or future income earning ability is impaired by periods of unemployment or were incurred during the marriage to permit that party to devote time to domestic duties.

Another factor is whether the supported party contributed to the attainment of an education, training, license, career, or position by the supporting party. 

Another factor is the ability of the supporting party to pay, taking in account that person's earning capacity, income, and assets and standard of living.

Another very important support consideration is the needs of each party - including both. 

Another factor is the obligations and assets of each spouse, including the separate property which each has or gained upon the dissolution.

Another is the ability of the supported spouse to engage in gainful employment without interfering with the needs of dependent children in their custody.

The age and health of the parties is critical in some cases.  65 years of age is the presumed retirement age for adults today, and courts cannot order a person to continue to be employed beyond that age - but, if they make that choice, their income can be considered.

A documented history of domestic violence can affect the right to receive support or the obligation to pay it.

The tax consequences between the parties must be considered.

And, basically, as I said, any other specific facts that trend one way or another.

The three most common factors are the marital standard of living (MSOL), need and ability to pay, and the assets the parties end up with upon divorcing.

Courts cannot order lump sums for support.  Spousal support is generally taxable to the recipient and deductible to the payor, but there are very specific IRS requirements that must be met for this to actually be so.

Courts are required to state their findings on each relevant issue in writing.  In practice though, most people settle their divorce cases by way of settlement agreements.  Unfortunately, lawyers often leave out these findings so that when a court is asked, down the road, by the payor to terminate or decrease support, or by the payee to increase it, there is no map for the court to use to base its modification findings on.

If support is an issue for you either way, please hire a competent lawyer.  There are many attorneys moving into family law from civil practices who are clueless about these things.  Caveat emptor!


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